Reasoning and mental Aptitude Sample Paper
Sample Papers Series REASONING - MENTAL ABILITY - APTITUDE
Reasoning (Mental Aptitude) Solved Sample Question Paper.
1. A bird shooter was asked how many birds he had in the bag. He replied that there were all sparrows but six, all pigeons but six, and all ducks but six. How many birds had he in all?
(a) 9
(b) 18
(c) 27
(d) 36
Ans. (a)
2. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If he attempts all 75 questions and secures 125 marks, the number of questions he attempted correctly, is
(a) 35
(b) 40
(c) 42
(d) 46
Ans. (b)
3. Between two ends of a bookshelf in your study are displayed five of your favorite puzzle books. If you decide to arrange these five books in every possible combination and move just one book every minute, how long would it take you to do so?
(a) One hour Two hours
(b) Two hours
(c) Three hours
(d) Four hours
Ans. (b)
4. A father is, at present, three times as old as his son. Five years back, he was four times as old as his son. Find the age of his son.
(a) 12 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 20 years
Ans. (b)
5. If A stands for +, B stands for -, C stands for Х, then what is the value of (10 C 4) A (4 C 4) B 6?
(a) 60
(b) 56
(c) 50
(d) 20
Ans. (c)
6. If + stands for ‘division’, Х stands for ‘addition’, - stands for ‘multiplication’ and ÷ stands for ‘subtraction’, then which of the following equations is correct?
(a) 36 Х 6 + 7 ÷ 2 – 6 = 20
(b) 36 ÷ 6 + 3 Х 5 – 3 = 45
(c) 36 + 6 - 3 Х 5 ÷ 3 = 34
(d) 36 - 6 + 3 Х 5 ÷ 3 = 74
Ans. (d)
Directions: In each of the following questions if the interchanges are made in signs and numbers, which one of the four equations would be correct?
7. Given interchanges: Signs: - and ÷ and numbers 4 and 8
(a) 6 – 8 ÷ 4 = - 1
(b) 8 – 6 ÷ 4 = 1
(c) 4 ÷ 8 – 2 = 6
(d) 4 – 8 ÷ 6 = 2
Ans. (c)
8. Given interchanges: Signs: ÷ and + and numbers 4 and 2
(a) 4 + 2 ÷ 1 = 3/2
(b) 2 + 4 ÷ 3 = 6
(c) 4 + 2 ÷ 3 = 3
(d) 2 + 4 ÷ 5 = 8
Ans. (a)
9. Given interchanges: Signs: Х and + and numbers 2 and 8
(a) 8 Х 2 + 9 = 19
(b) 2 Х 8 + 10 = 13
(c) 2 + 8 Х 6 = 22
(d) 8 Х 2 + 6 = 19
Ans. (c)
10. Given interchanges: Signs: - and + and numbers 8 and 4
(a) 4 + 8 – 1 = 5
(b) 4 – 8 + 5 = 9
(c) 4 + 8 – 5 = 10
(d) 4 – 8 + 12 = 1
Ans. (a)
11. If 3 + 8 = 17; 5 – 2 = 23; 6 Х 2 = 72; then 8 ÷ 4 = ?
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 25
(d) 16
(e) 42
Ans. (d)
12. If 3 Х 4 = 14; 5 Х 6 = 33; 7 Х 8 = 60, then 8 Х 9 = ?
(a) 77
(b) 89
(c) 98
(d) 79
(e) 72
Ans. (a)
13. In a class of 60, the number of girls are twice that of boys. Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are nine girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank?
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 12
(d) 23
Ans. (c)
14. Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes at the second place.
(a) Music
(b) Mint
(c) Mink
(d) Murder
(e) Multiple
Ans. (b)
15. If a meaningful word can be formed by re-arranging the letters USCALA, the last letter of the word so formed is the answer. Which one is that?
(a) C
(b) S
(c) A
(d) L
(e) U
Ans. (d)
Hint : ANS: CASUAL
Thursday, June 23, 2011
Thursday, June 9, 2011
Reasoning Model Paper
Reasoning Model Paper
Verbal Reasoning Sample Paper
1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters MASTE using each letter only once in each word
(1)None
(2) One
(3)Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
‘
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1)78
(2) 48
(3) 72
(4)54
(5) 42
3. In a certain cede SAFER is written as 5@3#2 and RIDE is written as 2©%#. How is FEDS written in that code ?
(1)3#©5
(2) 3@%5
(3)3#%5
(4) 3#%2
(5)None of these
4.. Pointing to a woman, Nirmal said, “She is the daughter of my wife’s grandfather’s only child”. How is the woman related to Nirmal
(1)Wife
(2)Sister-in-law
(3)Sister
(4)Data inadequate
(5)None of these
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1)Sweet
(2) Cake
(3)Pastry
(4) Bread.
(5) Biscuit
6. In a certain code CONFUSED is written as EMNBEFTV. How is SECLUDED written in that code
(1) RDBKEFEV
(2) KBDRCDCT
(3) KBDREFEV
(4) MDFTCDCT
(5) None of these
7. What should come next in the following letter series ?
Z XVT R P N U YW T J S Q O
(1)M
(2)K
(3)N
(4)J
(5)None of these
8. Flow many such digits are there in the number 9254716 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order
(1)None
(2) One
(3)Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
9. In a certain code language’ bring the board’ is written as ka na di pa’ and ‘white and black board’ is written as ‘na di sa ra’. How is ‘the’ written in that code ?
(l)ka
(2) pa
(3) ka or pa
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
10. Among B, F, J, K and W each having a different weight, F is heavier than only J. B is heavier than F and W but not as heavy 35 K. Who among them is the third heaviest among them ?
(1) B (2)F
• (4)W
(3) None of these
Directions (Q. 11 to 16) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
Y 4 8 A @ D F 3 # R N 1 M © W
P % J 2 E 5 Z * 6 Q B 7 $ H U 9 I K
11. Which of the following is the seventh to the right of the nineteenth from the right end of the above arrangement P
(1)1
(2)D
(3)Z
(4)$
(5)None of these
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group
(1)D#A
(2)JWE
(3)562
(4) $9B
(5)RM3
13. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter?
(1)None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
14. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol P
(1)None
(2) One
(3)Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
15. What should come next in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
8@D #N1 W%J 5*6
(1) 7HU
(2) 7$U
(3) 7#9
(4) B$#
(5) None of these
16. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fourteenth from the left end?
(1)W
(2)P
(3)6
(4)J
(5)None of these
Directions (Q. 17 to 22) In each question below are four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, II and IV. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the four given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is correct.
17. Statements
All belts are rollers.
Some rollers are wheels.
All wheels are mats.
Some mats are cars.
Conclusions
I. Some mats are rollers.
II. Some mats are belts.
III. Some cars are rollers.
IV Some rollers are belts.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I, III and IV follow
(3) Only I and IV follow
(4) Only II, III and IV follow
(5) None of these
18. Statements
Some tyres are rains.
Some rains are flowers.
All flowers are jungles.
All jungles are tubes.
Conclusions
I. Some jungles are tyres.
II. Some tubes are rains.
III. Some jungles are rains.
IV. Some tubes are flowers.
(1) Only I, II and III follow
(2) Only II, III and IV follow
(3) Only I, III and IV follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
19. Statements
All desks are chairs.
All chairs axe tables.
All tables are boxes.
All boxes are trunks.
Conclusions
I. Some trunks are tables.
II. All chairs are boxes.
III. Some boxes are desks.
P All desks are trunks.
(1) Only I ,II and III follow
(2) Only I, II and IV follow
(3) Only II, III and IV follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
20. Statements
Some birds are goats.
Some goats are horses.
Some horses are lions.
Some lions are tigers.
Conclusions
I. Some tigers are goats.
II. No tiger is goat.
III. Some lions are birds.
IV No lion is bird.
(1) Only either I or II follows
(2) Only either III or IV follows
(3) Only either I or II and either III or IV follow
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None of these
21. Statements :
All papers are bottles.
All bottles are cups.
Some cups are jugs.
Some jugs are plates.
Conclusions
I. Some plates are cups.
II. Some plates are bottles.
III. Some cups are papers.
IV Some bottles are papers. ‘
(1) Only III and IV follow
(2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only I and III follow
(4) Only II and IV follow
(5) None of these
22. Statements
All bulbs are wires.
No wire is cable.
Some cables are brushes.
Alt brushes are paints.
Conclusions
I. Some paints are cables.
II. Some wires are bulbs.
III. Some brushes are wires.
IV Some cables are bulbs.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I & II follow
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only TV follows
Directions (Q. 23 to 28) : In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Letter
R DA E J M K T B U I P W H F
Digit/Symbol Code:
4 8 5 $ * 1 2 6 % © 7@3 9 #
Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as +.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter, is a consonant their codes are to be interchanged.
23. HIFMJU
(1)©7#1*9
(2) 97#l*9
(3)©7#l*©
(4) +7#1*+
(5)None of these
24. AKTRBW
(1) 3264%5 (2) 3264%3
(3) 324%65 (4) 5264%3
(5) None of these
25. EBPDRI
(1) 7%@847
(2) 7%@84$
(3)$°/o@847
(4) $%8@47
(5) None of these
26. BKAJIM
(1) %25*71 (2) 125*7%
(3) O/o25*7% (4) 15*271
(5) None of these
27. UKPDMA
(1) 52@815 (2) ©2@815
(3) ©2@81C (4) ©@2815
(5) None of these
28. METUFB
(1) %$6©#1 (2) 1$6©#1
(3) %$6©#°/o (4) l$60#%
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 29 to 34) : A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : but 32 71 glory fair south 65 84
Step I south but 32 71 glory fair 65 84
Step II south 84 but 32 71 glory fair 65
Step III south 84 glory but 32 71 fair 65
Step T : south 84 glory 71 but 32 fair 65
Step V : south 84 glory 71 fair but 32 65
Step VI : south 84 glory 71 fair 65 but 32
and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
29. Step III of an input is: year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house 39
How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Two (4) Five
(5) None of these
30. Input: any how 49 24 far wide 34 69
Which of the following steps will be the last but one
(1) VI (2) VII
(3) V (4) VIII
(5) None of these
31. Step II of an input is: town 74 pair 15 31 nice job 42
Which of the following is definitely the input
(1) pair 15 31 town nice job 42 74
(2) pair 15 town 31 74 nice job 42
(3) pair 15 town 74 31 nice job 42
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
32. Input: play over 49 37 12 match now 81
Which of the following will be step IV
(1) play 81 over 49 37 match now
(2) play 8 over 49 37 12 match now
(3) play 81 over 49 now 37 match 12
(4) There will be no such step
(5) None of these
33. Step II of an input is : war 58 box cart 33 49 star 24
Which of the following steps will be the last
(1) V (2)VI
(3) IV (4) VII
(5) None of these
34. Input: shower fall water 34 51 67 98 goal.
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Five
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 35 to 40) : In the following questions, the symbols ©, @, $, % and * are used with following meanings as illustrated below
‘P @Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
In each question four statements showing relationship have been given, which are followed by four conclusions I, II, III & IV. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is /are definitely True.
35. Statements
M © D, D * K, K @ R , R * F
Conclusions
1. F©K
II. D * F
III. M © R
IV D * R
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) Only IV is true
36. Statements
B%K, K$ T, T* F ,H© F
Conclusions
I B$T
II©B
III H © K
IV. F © B
(1) Only either I or II is true
(2) Only III is true
(3) Only IV is true
(4) Only III and IV are true
(5) Only either I or II are true
37. Statementj
W * B, B@ F, F © R, R $ M
Conclusions
I W*F
II. M * B
III R * B
IV. M* W
(1) Only and IV are true
(2) Only II and III are true
(3) Only I and III are true
(4) Only II and IV are true
(5) None of these
38. Statements
E@ K, K $ T’, T © N,.B % N
Conclusions
I T%E
II K©N
III. B * T
IV. B * E
(I) Only I, II and III are true
(2) Only II, III and IV are true
(3) Only I, III and IV are true
(4) All are true
(5) None of these
39. Statements -
Z $ B, B % M, M © F, F @ R
Conclusions
I Z*M
II. F * B
III R*M
IV. M @ Z
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only I, III and IV are true
(3) Only III and IV are true
(4) Only either I or IV and III are true
(5) None of these
40. Statements
H@T , T $ N, F © N, B%F
Conclusions
I F@H
II F©T
III:B * T
IV B % H
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III and IV are true
(5) Only II and III are true
Answers
1 4
2 2
3 3
4 4
5 1
6 3
7 1
8 2
9 3
10 4
11 3
12 2
13 5
14 3
15 1
16 4
17 3
18 2
19 4
20 3
21 1
22 2
23 4
24 1
25 3
26 5
27 2
28 3
29 2
30 3
31 4
32 4
33 2
34 4
35 1
36 5
37 2
38 3
39 3
40 3
Verbal Reasoning Sample Paper
1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters MASTE using each letter only once in each word
(1)None
(2) One
(3)Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
‘
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1)78
(2) 48
(3) 72
(4)54
(5) 42
3. In a certain cede SAFER is written as 5@3#2 and RIDE is written as 2©%#. How is FEDS written in that code ?
(1)3#©5
(2) 3@%5
(3)3#%5
(4) 3#%2
(5)None of these
4.. Pointing to a woman, Nirmal said, “She is the daughter of my wife’s grandfather’s only child”. How is the woman related to Nirmal
(1)Wife
(2)Sister-in-law
(3)Sister
(4)Data inadequate
(5)None of these
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1)Sweet
(2) Cake
(3)Pastry
(4) Bread.
(5) Biscuit
6. In a certain code CONFUSED is written as EMNBEFTV. How is SECLUDED written in that code
(1) RDBKEFEV
(2) KBDRCDCT
(3) KBDREFEV
(4) MDFTCDCT
(5) None of these
7. What should come next in the following letter series ?
Z XVT R P N U YW T J S Q O
(1)M
(2)K
(3)N
(4)J
(5)None of these
8. Flow many such digits are there in the number 9254716 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order
(1)None
(2) One
(3)Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
9. In a certain code language’ bring the board’ is written as ka na di pa’ and ‘white and black board’ is written as ‘na di sa ra’. How is ‘the’ written in that code ?
(l)ka
(2) pa
(3) ka or pa
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
10. Among B, F, J, K and W each having a different weight, F is heavier than only J. B is heavier than F and W but not as heavy 35 K. Who among them is the third heaviest among them ?
(1) B (2)F
• (4)W
(3) None of these
Directions (Q. 11 to 16) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
Y 4 8 A @ D F 3 # R N 1 M © W
P % J 2 E 5 Z * 6 Q B 7 $ H U 9 I K
11. Which of the following is the seventh to the right of the nineteenth from the right end of the above arrangement P
(1)1
(2)D
(3)Z
(4)$
(5)None of these
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group
(1)D#A
(2)JWE
(3)562
(4) $9B
(5)RM3
13. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter?
(1)None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
14. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol P
(1)None
(2) One
(3)Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
15. What should come next in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
8@D #N1 W%J 5*6
(1) 7HU
(2) 7$U
(3) 7#9
(4) B$#
(5) None of these
16. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fourteenth from the left end?
(1)W
(2)P
(3)6
(4)J
(5)None of these
Directions (Q. 17 to 22) In each question below are four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, II and IV. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the four given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is correct.
17. Statements
All belts are rollers.
Some rollers are wheels.
All wheels are mats.
Some mats are cars.
Conclusions
I. Some mats are rollers.
II. Some mats are belts.
III. Some cars are rollers.
IV Some rollers are belts.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I, III and IV follow
(3) Only I and IV follow
(4) Only II, III and IV follow
(5) None of these
18. Statements
Some tyres are rains.
Some rains are flowers.
All flowers are jungles.
All jungles are tubes.
Conclusions
I. Some jungles are tyres.
II. Some tubes are rains.
III. Some jungles are rains.
IV. Some tubes are flowers.
(1) Only I, II and III follow
(2) Only II, III and IV follow
(3) Only I, III and IV follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
19. Statements
All desks are chairs.
All chairs axe tables.
All tables are boxes.
All boxes are trunks.
Conclusions
I. Some trunks are tables.
II. All chairs are boxes.
III. Some boxes are desks.
P All desks are trunks.
(1) Only I ,II and III follow
(2) Only I, II and IV follow
(3) Only II, III and IV follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
20. Statements
Some birds are goats.
Some goats are horses.
Some horses are lions.
Some lions are tigers.
Conclusions
I. Some tigers are goats.
II. No tiger is goat.
III. Some lions are birds.
IV No lion is bird.
(1) Only either I or II follows
(2) Only either III or IV follows
(3) Only either I or II and either III or IV follow
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None of these
21. Statements :
All papers are bottles.
All bottles are cups.
Some cups are jugs.
Some jugs are plates.
Conclusions
I. Some plates are cups.
II. Some plates are bottles.
III. Some cups are papers.
IV Some bottles are papers. ‘
(1) Only III and IV follow
(2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only I and III follow
(4) Only II and IV follow
(5) None of these
22. Statements
All bulbs are wires.
No wire is cable.
Some cables are brushes.
Alt brushes are paints.
Conclusions
I. Some paints are cables.
II. Some wires are bulbs.
III. Some brushes are wires.
IV Some cables are bulbs.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I & II follow
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only TV follows
Directions (Q. 23 to 28) : In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Letter
R DA E J M K T B U I P W H F
Digit/Symbol Code:
4 8 5 $ * 1 2 6 % © 7@3 9 #
Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as +.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter, is a consonant their codes are to be interchanged.
23. HIFMJU
(1)©7#1*9
(2) 97#l*9
(3)©7#l*©
(4) +7#1*+
(5)None of these
24. AKTRBW
(1) 3264%5 (2) 3264%3
(3) 324%65 (4) 5264%3
(5) None of these
25. EBPDRI
(1) 7%@847
(2) 7%@84$
(3)$°/o@847
(4) $%8@47
(5) None of these
26. BKAJIM
(1) %25*71 (2) 125*7%
(3) O/o25*7% (4) 15*271
(5) None of these
27. UKPDMA
(1) 52@815 (2) ©2@815
(3) ©2@81C (4) ©@2815
(5) None of these
28. METUFB
(1) %$6©#1 (2) 1$6©#1
(3) %$6©#°/o (4) l$60#%
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 29 to 34) : A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : but 32 71 glory fair south 65 84
Step I south but 32 71 glory fair 65 84
Step II south 84 but 32 71 glory fair 65
Step III south 84 glory but 32 71 fair 65
Step T : south 84 glory 71 but 32 fair 65
Step V : south 84 glory 71 fair but 32 65
Step VI : south 84 glory 71 fair 65 but 32
and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
29. Step III of an input is: year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house 39
How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Two (4) Five
(5) None of these
30. Input: any how 49 24 far wide 34 69
Which of the following steps will be the last but one
(1) VI (2) VII
(3) V (4) VIII
(5) None of these
31. Step II of an input is: town 74 pair 15 31 nice job 42
Which of the following is definitely the input
(1) pair 15 31 town nice job 42 74
(2) pair 15 town 31 74 nice job 42
(3) pair 15 town 74 31 nice job 42
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
32. Input: play over 49 37 12 match now 81
Which of the following will be step IV
(1) play 81 over 49 37 match now
(2) play 8 over 49 37 12 match now
(3) play 81 over 49 now 37 match 12
(4) There will be no such step
(5) None of these
33. Step II of an input is : war 58 box cart 33 49 star 24
Which of the following steps will be the last
(1) V (2)VI
(3) IV (4) VII
(5) None of these
34. Input: shower fall water 34 51 67 98 goal.
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Five
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 35 to 40) : In the following questions, the symbols ©, @, $, % and * are used with following meanings as illustrated below
‘P @Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
In each question four statements showing relationship have been given, which are followed by four conclusions I, II, III & IV. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is /are definitely True.
35. Statements
M © D, D * K, K @ R , R * F
Conclusions
1. F©K
II. D * F
III. M © R
IV D * R
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) Only IV is true
36. Statements
B%K, K$ T, T* F ,H© F
Conclusions
I B$T
II©B
III H © K
IV. F © B
(1) Only either I or II is true
(2) Only III is true
(3) Only IV is true
(4) Only III and IV are true
(5) Only either I or II are true
37. Statementj
W * B, B@ F, F © R, R $ M
Conclusions
I W*F
II. M * B
III R * B
IV. M* W
(1) Only and IV are true
(2) Only II and III are true
(3) Only I and III are true
(4) Only II and IV are true
(5) None of these
38. Statements
E@ K, K $ T’, T © N,.B % N
Conclusions
I T%E
II K©N
III. B * T
IV. B * E
(I) Only I, II and III are true
(2) Only II, III and IV are true
(3) Only I, III and IV are true
(4) All are true
(5) None of these
39. Statements -
Z $ B, B % M, M © F, F @ R
Conclusions
I Z*M
II. F * B
III R*M
IV. M @ Z
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only I, III and IV are true
(3) Only III and IV are true
(4) Only either I or IV and III are true
(5) None of these
40. Statements
H@T , T $ N, F © N, B%F
Conclusions
I F@H
II F©T
III:B * T
IV B % H
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III and IV are true
(5) Only II and III are true
Answers
1 4
2 2
3 3
4 4
5 1
6 3
7 1
8 2
9 3
10 4
11 3
12 2
13 5
14 3
15 1
16 4
17 3
18 2
19 4
20 3
21 1
22 2
23 4
24 1
25 3
26 5
27 2
28 3
29 2
30 3
31 4
32 4
33 2
34 4
35 1
36 5
37 2
38 3
39 3
40 3
Reasoning practice test COAL INDIA EXAM
Reasoning practice test COAL INDIA EXAM
MCQ Reasoning For COAL India jobs
Directions (Qs. 1 to 5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a school. Each of them studies in different standard from Standard IV to Standard X not necessarily in the same order. Each of them has favorite subject from English, Science, History, Geography, Mathematics, Hindi and Sanskrit not necessarily in the same order.
Q studies in VII Standard and does not like either Mathematics or Geography.
R likes English and does not study either in V or in IX
T studies in VIII Standard and likes Hindi.
The one who likes Science studies in X Standard.
S studies in iv Standard.
W likes Sanskrit.
P does not study in R Standard.
The one who likes Geography studies in V Standard
1. In which standard does W study?
(1)VIII
(2)IX
(3)X
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
2. Which subject does P like
(l) Geography
(2) Mathematics
(3) English
(4) History
(5) None of these
3 Which subject does S like
(1) History
(2 Geography
(3) Mathematics
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
4. In which standard does P study?
(i)IV
(2) V
(3)IX
(4)X
(5) None of these
5. Which of the following combinations of student-standard- subject is correct ?
(1)T – VIII – Mathematics
(2)W – VII -Sanskrit
(3)Q – VII -Geography
(4)V – X – Science
(5)None of these
Directions (Qs. 6 to 10) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
Following are the conditions for selecting Systems Manager in an organization
The candidate must
(i) be a graduate engineer in IT, Computer Science, Electronics with at least 60 percent marks.
(ii) be at least thirty years and not more than forty years as on 1.9.2009.
(iii) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the written examination.
(iv) have secured at least 50 percent marks in the selection interview.
(v) have post qualification work experience of at least ten years in the systems department of an organisation. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions
EXCEPT—
(a) at (1) above, but has secured at least 60 percent marks in ME IT or Computer Science, the case is to be referred to DGM-Systems.
(b) at (v) above, but has past qualification experience of at least five years as Deputy Systems Manager, the case is to be referred to the GM- Systems.
In each question below, details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub- conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything else other than the information provided for each candidate. All these cases are given to you as on 1.9.2009. Mark answer
(1) if the candidate is to be selected.
(2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
(3) if the case is to be referred to DGM-Systems.
(4) if the case is to be referred to GM-Systems.
(5) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
6. Samir Ghosh was born on 25th May 1978. He has secured 65 percent marks in BE-IT in the year 1999. Since then he is working in the systems department of an organization. He has secured 50 percent marks in both written examination and selection interview
7. Navin Prakash has secured 62 percent marks in BE-Computer Science. He has been working in the systems department of an organisation since July 1999 after completion of BE. He was born on 4th April 1974. He has secured 55 percent marks in selection interview and 45 percent marks in the written exam
8. Neeta Pathak has been working as Deputy Systems Manager in an organization for the past seven years after completing her BE in IT with 70 percent marks. She has secured 45 percent marks in selection interview and 55 percent marks in the written examination. She was born on 12th November, 1978.
9. Ashok Malhotra,was born on 19th March 1977. He has secured 56 percent marks in both selection interview and written examination. He has secured 58 percent marks in BE-IT and 72 percent marks in ME-IT He has been working in the systems department of an organization for the past eleven years after completing ME-IT
10. Gemma D’Souza was born on15th December 1972. She has secured 60 percent marks in both written examination and selection interview. She has been working as Deputy Systems Manager for the last six years in an organization after completing her BE-Electronics with 75 percent
Directions (Qs. 11 to 15) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(i) A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are eight students each having a different height.
(ii) D is shorter than A but taller than G.
(iii) E is taller than H but shorter than C.
(iv) B is shorter than D but taller than E
(v) C is shorter than G.
(vi) G is not as tall as F.
11. Which of the following is definitely false ?
(1) G is shorter than F
(2) C is shorter than F
(3) F is taller than C
(4) B is taller than E
(5) All are true
12. If another student J who is taller than E but shorter than G is added to the group, which of the following will be definitely true
(1) C and J are of same height
(2) J is shorter than D
(3) J is shorter than H
(4) J is taller than A
(5) None of these
13. Which of the following will definitely be the third from top when the eight students are arranged in descending order of height ?
(1) B
(2) F
(3)G
(4) B or G
(5) Cannot be determined
14. How many of them are definitely shorter than F
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
15. Which of the following is redundant to answer all the above questions ?
(1) (ii) only
(2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (iii) and (iv) only
(4) (ii) and (v) only
(5) All are necessary to answer the above question
Directions (Qs. 16 to 20) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer
(1) if the inference is “definitely true” i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
(2) if the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(3) if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
(4) if the inference is “probably false” though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given.
(5) if the inference is “definitely false” i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
A recent report that satellite data shows groundwater levels in northern India depleting by as much as a foot per year over the, past decade, is a matter of concern. The clear writing on the wall is that India faces a turbulent water future and veritable crisis without proactive policy and sustainable practices. Besides, the poor monsoon this season and the resultant drought situation pan-India calls for sustained policy focus on the water economy. A whole series of glaring anomalies do need to be addressed. For one, there’s far too much reliance on groundwater. For another, our water infrastructure for storage and supply is sorely inadequate. Worse, policy distortions in artificially under pricing key agri-inputs like power have perversely incentivised cultivation of water intensive crops like paddy in traditionally wheat growing areas.
16. India has failed to take measures to recharge groundwater adequately in northern part.
17. Wheat cultivation in India requires comparatively more water than paddy.
18. Water level in other parts of India is stable during the last decade.
19. India has now put in place a system to reduce over dependence on groundwater.
20. Adequate monsoon helps in drawing less ground water for cultivation and thus preserve balance.
Directions (Qs. 21 to 27) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between “strong arguments and “weak” arguments. “Strong” arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak” arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question.
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the argument(s) is/are “strong” and select your answer accordingly.
21. Should the Government restrict use of electricity for each household depending upon the requirement?
Arguments
I. Yes, this will help Government tide over the problem of inadequate generation of
electricity.
II.No, every citizen has right to consume electricity as per their requirement as they pay for using electricity
III. No, the Government does not have the machinery to put such a restriction on use of electricity.
(1) Only I is strong
(2) Only II is strong
(3) Only I and II are strong
(4) Only II and III are strong
(5) All I, II and III are strong
22. Should the Government order closure of all educational institutions for a month to avoid fast spreading of the contagious viral infection
Arguments
I. No, closure of educational institution alone is not the solution for curbing spread of viral infection.
II. No, students will visit crowded places like malls, markets, playgrounds etc. in mote numbers and spread the disease, as they will have lot of spare time at theft disposal.
III. Yes, young persons are more prone to get affected by the viral infection and hence they should remain in doors.
(1) None is strong
(2) Only us strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only I and II are strong
(5) All I, II and III are strong
23. Should the Government ban export of all types of food grains the next one year to tide over unpredicted drought situation in country
Arguments
I. Yes, there is no other way to provide food to its citizen during the year.
II. No, the Government does not have its jurisdiction over private exporters for banning exports.
III. Yes, the Government should not allow the exporters to export food grains and procure all the foodgrains held by such exports and make it available for home consumption.
(I) Only I and II are strong
(2) Only II and III strong
(3) Only I and III are strong
(4) All I, II and III are strong
(5) None of these
24. Should there be a common syllabus for all subjects in graduate courses in all the universities across the country
Arguments
I. Yes, this is the only way to spring in Uniformity in the education system in the country.
II. Yes, it will help standardize the quality of graduation. Certificates being given by differ universities in the county.
III. No, each university should have the autonomy to decide its syllabus based on the specific requirement of the university.
(I) None is strong
(2) Only I is strong
(3) Only II is strong
(4) Only I and II are strong
(5) Only II and III are strong
25. Should all those students who failed in one or two subjects in HSC be allowed to take admission in degree courses and continue their study subject to their successfully passing in the supplementary examination ?
Arguments
I. Yes, this will help the students to complete theft education without a break of one year.
II. Yes, this is a forward looking strategy to help the students and motivate them for higher studies.
III. No, such students do not choose to continue their studies without having passed in all the subjects in HSC.
(1) Only I is strong
(2) Only II is strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only either II or III and I are strong
(5) None of these
26. Effect
At least twenty schoolchildren were seriously injured while going for a school picnic during the weekend.
Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above effect
(1) The teacher accompanying the school children fell ill during the journey
(2) The bus in which the children were travelling met with an accident while taking turn on the main highway.
(3) The driver of the bus in which the children were travelling did not report after the break at the halting place on their journey.
(4) The school authority banned all school picnics for the next six months with immediate effect
(5) None of these
27.Cause
Government has recently decided to hike the procurement price of paddy for the rabi crops.
Which of the following will be a possible effect of the above cause
(1) The farmers may be encouraged to cultivate paddy for the rabi season.
(2) The farmers may switch over to other cash crops in their paddy fields.
(3)There was a drop in production of paddy during Kharif season.
(4)Government may not increase the procurement price of paddy during the next Kharif
season.
(5)Government will buy paddy from the open market during the next few months.
28. Statement
Many patients suffering from malaria were administered anti malarial drug for a week. Some of them did not respond to the traditional drug and their condition deteriorated after four days.
Which of the following would weaken the findings mentioned in the above statement
(1) Those patients who responded to the traditional drugs and recovered were needed to be given additional doses as they reported relapse of symptoms.
(2) The mosquitoes carrying malaria are found to be resistant to traditional malarial drugs.
(3) Majority of the patients suffering from malaria responded well to the traditional malarial drugs and recovered from the illness.
(4)Many drug companies have stopped manufacturing traditional malarial drugs.
(5) None of these
29. Statement
The cost of manufacturing cars in state A is thirty percent less than the cost of manufacturing cars in state B. Even after transportation fee for the differential distances of states A and B and the interstate taxes, it is cheaper to manufacture cars in state B than state A for selling these cars in Stare C.
Which of the following supports the conclusion drawn in the above statement?
(1) The cost of transportation from state A to state C is mote than thirty percent of the production cost
(2) The production costs of cars in state B are lower in comparison to state A
(3) Only Entry tax at state C is more for the products originated in state A
(4) Entry tax at state C is more for the products originated in state B
(5) The total of transportation cost of cars from state B to state C and entry tax of cars at state C is less than thirty percent of the production cost of cars in state B
.
30. Statement
Many people are of the opinion that use of cell phones in offices for personal use should totally be banned. It has been found in a research study that there was significant drop in output of employees in the organisation where use of cell phones was liberally allowed vis-a-vis those organizations where use of cell phones is banned for making personal calls.
Which of the following contradicts the findings of stated in the above statement?
(1) People spend more, time on talking while using cell phone for personal calls.
(2)Use of cell phones has become common in all the organisations.
(3) In the organisation where employees were allowed to use cell phones for making personal calls the employees are found to be more motivated to carry out their duties than those working in other organizations.
(4) Many organisations who provide cell phones to their employees for making official calls advise them to refrain from making personal calls during office hours
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 31 to 37) In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
31. Statement
The members belonging to two local clubs occasionally fight with each other on the main road and block traffic movement.
Courses of action
I. The local police station should immediately deploy police personnel round the clock on, the main road.
II Those involved in fighting should be identified and put behind bars.
III. The local administration should disband the management of the two clubs
with immediate effect.
(1)Only I and II follow
(2)Only II and III follow
(3)Only I and I follow
(4)All I, II and III follow
(5)None of these
32. Statement
Many students of the local school fell ill for the fourth time in a row in the last six months after consuming food prepared by the school canteen.
Courses of action
I. The school management should immediately terminate the contract of the canteen and ask for compensation.
II. The school management should advise all the students not to eat food articles from the canteen.
III. The owner of the canteen should immediately be arrested for negligence.
(1) None follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) Only TI and III follow
33. Statement
Many school buses have fitted CNG Kit without observing the safety guideline properly. This results into some instances of these buses catching fire due to short circuit and endangering the lives of the school children.
Courses of action
I. The regional transport authority should immediately carry out checks of all the school buses fitted with CNG Kit.
II. The management of all the schools should stop hiring buses fitted with CNG Kit.
III. The Government should issue a notification banning school buses for use of CNG Kit.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None of these
34. Statement
A sudden cloud burst over the island city resulted into unpredicted rainfall causing flood like situation in the entire area. Large number of people were caught unaware and were stranded on the road.
Courses of action
I. The local administration should immediately put in place an action plan for avoiding such situation in future.
II. The local administration should immediately deploy personnel to help the stranded people, to move to safer places.
III. The local administration should advise all the citizens not to venture out on the road till situation improves.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only II and III follow
(5). All I, II and III follow
35. Statement
It is reported that during the last fortnight there has been three cases of near miss situation involving two aircrafts over the busy city airport. In all these cases both the aircrafts came perilously close to each other and could avoid confusion as the pilots acted just in time.
Courses of action
I The pilots of all the six aircrafts involved in these incidents should immediately be de-rostered.
II. Some flights should be diverted to other airports for the next few months to decongest the sky over the city airport.
III. Air traffic controllers of the city airport should be sent for refresher courses in batches to prepare themselves to handle such pressure situation.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only II and III follow
(5) None of these
36. A, B, C, D and E are five students in a class. D did not enter along with A or F but entered before C. B did not enter before C but entered along with A. E was not the last to enter:
Which of ,the following is definitely true ?
(1) C entered the class only after D
(2) D entered the class only after E
(3) B entered the class after A
(4) A entered the class after D
(5) None of these
37. D is brother of K. M is sister of K. T is father of R who is brother of M. F is mother of K. At least how many sons does T and F have ?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
38. Statement
In a move that could provide some respite to ailing airline companies, the Government is looking at allowing them to import jet fuel on their own.
Which of the following can be definitely concluded from the above statement
(1) Airline companies in the past have imported jet fuel
(2) The price of imported jet fuel is less than the price of jet fuel available in the local market.
(3) Central Government will lose huge amount of money if jet fuel is imported.
(4) Airline companies are making considerable profit in the recent months.
(5) None of these
39. Statement
Some of the country’s largest food beverage and pharma companies may be forced to import sugar directly as the Government plans to improve stock limits on industrial consumers to ease the shortage in grocery shops and cool down prices that are at a 28-month high.
Which of the following substantiates the views expressed in the above statement ?
(1) Food, pharma and beverage companies were not allowed in the past to import
sugar.
(2)Sugar prices have been fluctuating for the past seven months.
(3)Government does not have authority to restrict purchase of sugar from the open
market.
(4)Import of sugar for commercial use will help lowering down the sugar price in the retail market
(5)None of these
40. Statement
A recent review reported that India’s fashion industry has been severely affected due to a slump in demand for luxury apparel, leather goods, besides gems and jewellery in domestic as well as international markets.
Which of the following contradicts the views expressed in the above statement?
(1) India’s fashion industry has been growing till last year
(2) Government has helped India’s fashion industry to grow in the past
(3) Domestic market of fashion goods reflects the sentiments of international market
(4) Share of fashion goods manufactured by India is negligible in the international market
(5) None of these
Answers :
1 Ans 2
2 Ans 1
3 Ans 3
4 Ans 5
5 Ans 4
6 Ans 1
7 Ans 1
8 Ans 2
9 Ans 3
10 Ans 4
11 Ans 5
12 Ans 2
13 Ans 1
14 Ans 2
15 Ans 5
16 Ans 1
17 Ans 5
18 Ans 3
19 Ans 4
20 Ans 2
21 Ans 3
22 Ans 2
23 Ans 5
24 Ans 4
25 Ans 1
26 Ans 2
27 Ans 1
28 Ans 3
29 Ans 5
30 Ans 3
31 Ans 1
32 Ans 4
33 Ans 1
34 Ans 4
35 Ans 3
36 Ans 4
37 Ans 4
38 Ans 2
39 Ans 4
40 Ans 4
MCQ Reasoning For COAL India jobs
Directions (Qs. 1 to 5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a school. Each of them studies in different standard from Standard IV to Standard X not necessarily in the same order. Each of them has favorite subject from English, Science, History, Geography, Mathematics, Hindi and Sanskrit not necessarily in the same order.
Q studies in VII Standard and does not like either Mathematics or Geography.
R likes English and does not study either in V or in IX
T studies in VIII Standard and likes Hindi.
The one who likes Science studies in X Standard.
S studies in iv Standard.
W likes Sanskrit.
P does not study in R Standard.
The one who likes Geography studies in V Standard
1. In which standard does W study?
(1)VIII
(2)IX
(3)X
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
2. Which subject does P like
(l) Geography
(2) Mathematics
(3) English
(4) History
(5) None of these
3 Which subject does S like
(1) History
(2 Geography
(3) Mathematics
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
4. In which standard does P study?
(i)IV
(2) V
(3)IX
(4)X
(5) None of these
5. Which of the following combinations of student-standard- subject is correct ?
(1)T – VIII – Mathematics
(2)W – VII -Sanskrit
(3)Q – VII -Geography
(4)V – X – Science
(5)None of these
Directions (Qs. 6 to 10) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
Following are the conditions for selecting Systems Manager in an organization
The candidate must
(i) be a graduate engineer in IT, Computer Science, Electronics with at least 60 percent marks.
(ii) be at least thirty years and not more than forty years as on 1.9.2009.
(iii) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the written examination.
(iv) have secured at least 50 percent marks in the selection interview.
(v) have post qualification work experience of at least ten years in the systems department of an organisation. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions
EXCEPT—
(a) at (1) above, but has secured at least 60 percent marks in ME IT or Computer Science, the case is to be referred to DGM-Systems.
(b) at (v) above, but has past qualification experience of at least five years as Deputy Systems Manager, the case is to be referred to the GM- Systems.
In each question below, details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub- conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything else other than the information provided for each candidate. All these cases are given to you as on 1.9.2009. Mark answer
(1) if the candidate is to be selected.
(2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
(3) if the case is to be referred to DGM-Systems.
(4) if the case is to be referred to GM-Systems.
(5) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
6. Samir Ghosh was born on 25th May 1978. He has secured 65 percent marks in BE-IT in the year 1999. Since then he is working in the systems department of an organization. He has secured 50 percent marks in both written examination and selection interview
7. Navin Prakash has secured 62 percent marks in BE-Computer Science. He has been working in the systems department of an organisation since July 1999 after completion of BE. He was born on 4th April 1974. He has secured 55 percent marks in selection interview and 45 percent marks in the written exam
8. Neeta Pathak has been working as Deputy Systems Manager in an organization for the past seven years after completing her BE in IT with 70 percent marks. She has secured 45 percent marks in selection interview and 55 percent marks in the written examination. She was born on 12th November, 1978.
9. Ashok Malhotra,was born on 19th March 1977. He has secured 56 percent marks in both selection interview and written examination. He has secured 58 percent marks in BE-IT and 72 percent marks in ME-IT He has been working in the systems department of an organization for the past eleven years after completing ME-IT
10. Gemma D’Souza was born on15th December 1972. She has secured 60 percent marks in both written examination and selection interview. She has been working as Deputy Systems Manager for the last six years in an organization after completing her BE-Electronics with 75 percent
Directions (Qs. 11 to 15) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(i) A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are eight students each having a different height.
(ii) D is shorter than A but taller than G.
(iii) E is taller than H but shorter than C.
(iv) B is shorter than D but taller than E
(v) C is shorter than G.
(vi) G is not as tall as F.
11. Which of the following is definitely false ?
(1) G is shorter than F
(2) C is shorter than F
(3) F is taller than C
(4) B is taller than E
(5) All are true
12. If another student J who is taller than E but shorter than G is added to the group, which of the following will be definitely true
(1) C and J are of same height
(2) J is shorter than D
(3) J is shorter than H
(4) J is taller than A
(5) None of these
13. Which of the following will definitely be the third from top when the eight students are arranged in descending order of height ?
(1) B
(2) F
(3)G
(4) B or G
(5) Cannot be determined
14. How many of them are definitely shorter than F
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
15. Which of the following is redundant to answer all the above questions ?
(1) (ii) only
(2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (iii) and (iv) only
(4) (ii) and (v) only
(5) All are necessary to answer the above question
Directions (Qs. 16 to 20) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer
(1) if the inference is “definitely true” i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
(2) if the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(3) if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
(4) if the inference is “probably false” though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given.
(5) if the inference is “definitely false” i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
A recent report that satellite data shows groundwater levels in northern India depleting by as much as a foot per year over the, past decade, is a matter of concern. The clear writing on the wall is that India faces a turbulent water future and veritable crisis without proactive policy and sustainable practices. Besides, the poor monsoon this season and the resultant drought situation pan-India calls for sustained policy focus on the water economy. A whole series of glaring anomalies do need to be addressed. For one, there’s far too much reliance on groundwater. For another, our water infrastructure for storage and supply is sorely inadequate. Worse, policy distortions in artificially under pricing key agri-inputs like power have perversely incentivised cultivation of water intensive crops like paddy in traditionally wheat growing areas.
16. India has failed to take measures to recharge groundwater adequately in northern part.
17. Wheat cultivation in India requires comparatively more water than paddy.
18. Water level in other parts of India is stable during the last decade.
19. India has now put in place a system to reduce over dependence on groundwater.
20. Adequate monsoon helps in drawing less ground water for cultivation and thus preserve balance.
Directions (Qs. 21 to 27) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between “strong arguments and “weak” arguments. “Strong” arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak” arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question.
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the argument(s) is/are “strong” and select your answer accordingly.
21. Should the Government restrict use of electricity for each household depending upon the requirement?
Arguments
I. Yes, this will help Government tide over the problem of inadequate generation of
electricity.
II.No, every citizen has right to consume electricity as per their requirement as they pay for using electricity
III. No, the Government does not have the machinery to put such a restriction on use of electricity.
(1) Only I is strong
(2) Only II is strong
(3) Only I and II are strong
(4) Only II and III are strong
(5) All I, II and III are strong
22. Should the Government order closure of all educational institutions for a month to avoid fast spreading of the contagious viral infection
Arguments
I. No, closure of educational institution alone is not the solution for curbing spread of viral infection.
II. No, students will visit crowded places like malls, markets, playgrounds etc. in mote numbers and spread the disease, as they will have lot of spare time at theft disposal.
III. Yes, young persons are more prone to get affected by the viral infection and hence they should remain in doors.
(1) None is strong
(2) Only us strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only I and II are strong
(5) All I, II and III are strong
23. Should the Government ban export of all types of food grains the next one year to tide over unpredicted drought situation in country
Arguments
I. Yes, there is no other way to provide food to its citizen during the year.
II. No, the Government does not have its jurisdiction over private exporters for banning exports.
III. Yes, the Government should not allow the exporters to export food grains and procure all the foodgrains held by such exports and make it available for home consumption.
(I) Only I and II are strong
(2) Only II and III strong
(3) Only I and III are strong
(4) All I, II and III are strong
(5) None of these
24. Should there be a common syllabus for all subjects in graduate courses in all the universities across the country
Arguments
I. Yes, this is the only way to spring in Uniformity in the education system in the country.
II. Yes, it will help standardize the quality of graduation. Certificates being given by differ universities in the county.
III. No, each university should have the autonomy to decide its syllabus based on the specific requirement of the university.
(I) None is strong
(2) Only I is strong
(3) Only II is strong
(4) Only I and II are strong
(5) Only II and III are strong
25. Should all those students who failed in one or two subjects in HSC be allowed to take admission in degree courses and continue their study subject to their successfully passing in the supplementary examination ?
Arguments
I. Yes, this will help the students to complete theft education without a break of one year.
II. Yes, this is a forward looking strategy to help the students and motivate them for higher studies.
III. No, such students do not choose to continue their studies without having passed in all the subjects in HSC.
(1) Only I is strong
(2) Only II is strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only either II or III and I are strong
(5) None of these
26. Effect
At least twenty schoolchildren were seriously injured while going for a school picnic during the weekend.
Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above effect
(1) The teacher accompanying the school children fell ill during the journey
(2) The bus in which the children were travelling met with an accident while taking turn on the main highway.
(3) The driver of the bus in which the children were travelling did not report after the break at the halting place on their journey.
(4) The school authority banned all school picnics for the next six months with immediate effect
(5) None of these
27.Cause
Government has recently decided to hike the procurement price of paddy for the rabi crops.
Which of the following will be a possible effect of the above cause
(1) The farmers may be encouraged to cultivate paddy for the rabi season.
(2) The farmers may switch over to other cash crops in their paddy fields.
(3)There was a drop in production of paddy during Kharif season.
(4)Government may not increase the procurement price of paddy during the next Kharif
season.
(5)Government will buy paddy from the open market during the next few months.
28. Statement
Many patients suffering from malaria were administered anti malarial drug for a week. Some of them did not respond to the traditional drug and their condition deteriorated after four days.
Which of the following would weaken the findings mentioned in the above statement
(1) Those patients who responded to the traditional drugs and recovered were needed to be given additional doses as they reported relapse of symptoms.
(2) The mosquitoes carrying malaria are found to be resistant to traditional malarial drugs.
(3) Majority of the patients suffering from malaria responded well to the traditional malarial drugs and recovered from the illness.
(4)Many drug companies have stopped manufacturing traditional malarial drugs.
(5) None of these
29. Statement
The cost of manufacturing cars in state A is thirty percent less than the cost of manufacturing cars in state B. Even after transportation fee for the differential distances of states A and B and the interstate taxes, it is cheaper to manufacture cars in state B than state A for selling these cars in Stare C.
Which of the following supports the conclusion drawn in the above statement?
(1) The cost of transportation from state A to state C is mote than thirty percent of the production cost
(2) The production costs of cars in state B are lower in comparison to state A
(3) Only Entry tax at state C is more for the products originated in state A
(4) Entry tax at state C is more for the products originated in state B
(5) The total of transportation cost of cars from state B to state C and entry tax of cars at state C is less than thirty percent of the production cost of cars in state B
.
30. Statement
Many people are of the opinion that use of cell phones in offices for personal use should totally be banned. It has been found in a research study that there was significant drop in output of employees in the organisation where use of cell phones was liberally allowed vis-a-vis those organizations where use of cell phones is banned for making personal calls.
Which of the following contradicts the findings of stated in the above statement?
(1) People spend more, time on talking while using cell phone for personal calls.
(2)Use of cell phones has become common in all the organisations.
(3) In the organisation where employees were allowed to use cell phones for making personal calls the employees are found to be more motivated to carry out their duties than those working in other organizations.
(4) Many organisations who provide cell phones to their employees for making official calls advise them to refrain from making personal calls during office hours
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 31 to 37) In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
31. Statement
The members belonging to two local clubs occasionally fight with each other on the main road and block traffic movement.
Courses of action
I. The local police station should immediately deploy police personnel round the clock on, the main road.
II Those involved in fighting should be identified and put behind bars.
III. The local administration should disband the management of the two clubs
with immediate effect.
(1)Only I and II follow
(2)Only II and III follow
(3)Only I and I follow
(4)All I, II and III follow
(5)None of these
32. Statement
Many students of the local school fell ill for the fourth time in a row in the last six months after consuming food prepared by the school canteen.
Courses of action
I. The school management should immediately terminate the contract of the canteen and ask for compensation.
II. The school management should advise all the students not to eat food articles from the canteen.
III. The owner of the canteen should immediately be arrested for negligence.
(1) None follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) Only TI and III follow
33. Statement
Many school buses have fitted CNG Kit without observing the safety guideline properly. This results into some instances of these buses catching fire due to short circuit and endangering the lives of the school children.
Courses of action
I. The regional transport authority should immediately carry out checks of all the school buses fitted with CNG Kit.
II. The management of all the schools should stop hiring buses fitted with CNG Kit.
III. The Government should issue a notification banning school buses for use of CNG Kit.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None of these
34. Statement
A sudden cloud burst over the island city resulted into unpredicted rainfall causing flood like situation in the entire area. Large number of people were caught unaware and were stranded on the road.
Courses of action
I. The local administration should immediately put in place an action plan for avoiding such situation in future.
II. The local administration should immediately deploy personnel to help the stranded people, to move to safer places.
III. The local administration should advise all the citizens not to venture out on the road till situation improves.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only II and III follow
(5). All I, II and III follow
35. Statement
It is reported that during the last fortnight there has been three cases of near miss situation involving two aircrafts over the busy city airport. In all these cases both the aircrafts came perilously close to each other and could avoid confusion as the pilots acted just in time.
Courses of action
I The pilots of all the six aircrafts involved in these incidents should immediately be de-rostered.
II. Some flights should be diverted to other airports for the next few months to decongest the sky over the city airport.
III. Air traffic controllers of the city airport should be sent for refresher courses in batches to prepare themselves to handle such pressure situation.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only II and III follow
(5) None of these
36. A, B, C, D and E are five students in a class. D did not enter along with A or F but entered before C. B did not enter before C but entered along with A. E was not the last to enter:
Which of ,the following is definitely true ?
(1) C entered the class only after D
(2) D entered the class only after E
(3) B entered the class after A
(4) A entered the class after D
(5) None of these
37. D is brother of K. M is sister of K. T is father of R who is brother of M. F is mother of K. At least how many sons does T and F have ?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
38. Statement
In a move that could provide some respite to ailing airline companies, the Government is looking at allowing them to import jet fuel on their own.
Which of the following can be definitely concluded from the above statement
(1) Airline companies in the past have imported jet fuel
(2) The price of imported jet fuel is less than the price of jet fuel available in the local market.
(3) Central Government will lose huge amount of money if jet fuel is imported.
(4) Airline companies are making considerable profit in the recent months.
(5) None of these
39. Statement
Some of the country’s largest food beverage and pharma companies may be forced to import sugar directly as the Government plans to improve stock limits on industrial consumers to ease the shortage in grocery shops and cool down prices that are at a 28-month high.
Which of the following substantiates the views expressed in the above statement ?
(1) Food, pharma and beverage companies were not allowed in the past to import
sugar.
(2)Sugar prices have been fluctuating for the past seven months.
(3)Government does not have authority to restrict purchase of sugar from the open
market.
(4)Import of sugar for commercial use will help lowering down the sugar price in the retail market
(5)None of these
40. Statement
A recent review reported that India’s fashion industry has been severely affected due to a slump in demand for luxury apparel, leather goods, besides gems and jewellery in domestic as well as international markets.
Which of the following contradicts the views expressed in the above statement?
(1) India’s fashion industry has been growing till last year
(2) Government has helped India’s fashion industry to grow in the past
(3) Domestic market of fashion goods reflects the sentiments of international market
(4) Share of fashion goods manufactured by India is negligible in the international market
(5) None of these
Answers :
1 Ans 2
2 Ans 1
3 Ans 3
4 Ans 5
5 Ans 4
6 Ans 1
7 Ans 1
8 Ans 2
9 Ans 3
10 Ans 4
11 Ans 5
12 Ans 2
13 Ans 1
14 Ans 2
15 Ans 5
16 Ans 1
17 Ans 5
18 Ans 3
19 Ans 4
20 Ans 2
21 Ans 3
22 Ans 2
23 Ans 5
24 Ans 4
25 Ans 1
26 Ans 2
27 Ans 1
28 Ans 3
29 Ans 5
30 Ans 3
31 Ans 1
32 Ans 4
33 Ans 1
34 Ans 4
35 Ans 3
36 Ans 4
37 Ans 4
38 Ans 2
39 Ans 4
40 Ans 4
Verbal Reasoning solved online test
Verbal Reasoning solved online test
Free Verbal Reasoning Online Practice Test
Test of Verbal Reasoning Solved Questions
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ORGANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
2. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter only once in each word?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (B)
3. The position of how many digits in the dumber 8247531 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
4. In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3$ and NEWS is written as $1@8. How is SOME written in that code?
(A) 8% 51
(B) 85% 8
(C) 8@ 51
(D) 8% 31
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
5. In a certain code language ‘how many books’ is written as ‘sa da na’ and ‘many more days’ is written as ‘ka pa da’. How is ‘books’ written in that code language?
(A) sa
(B) na
(C) sa or na
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
6. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as ‘PKBNXSHQ’. How is SANCTION written in that code?
(A) TBODMNHS
(B) DOBTMNHS
(C) TBODSHNM
(D) DOBTOPJU
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
7. The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
8. ‘BE’ is related to ‘GJ’ in the same way as ‘PS’ is related to……..?
(A) UY
(B) UX
(C) UZ
(D) VY
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
9. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored the highest marks?
(A) P
(B) T
(C) R
(0) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
10. Pointing to a girl, Nidhi said, ‘she is the daughter of my grandmother’s only child’. how is the girl related to Nidhi?
(A) Sister
(B) Self
(C) Cousin sister
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
11. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to the right of R who is sixteenth from the right end of the row. What is W’s position from the right end of the row?
(A) Eleventh
(B) Tenth
(C) Twelfth
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 12—14) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow— Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organized in a week from Monday to Saturday with one play each day and no play was organized on one of these days. Play D was organized before Thursday but after Monday. Play E was organized on Saturday. Play C was not organized on the first day. Play B was organized on the next day on which play C was organized. Play A was organized on
12.On which day was play B organized?
(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
13. On which day no play was organized?
(A) Monday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Data inadequate
(F) None of these
Ans. (A)
14. Which play was organized on Wednesday?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
15. If’ ‘÷’ means ‘+‘; ‘x’ means ‘- ‘, ‘ + ‘ means x’ and - means +then 24-4 ÷ 6 x 3+ 4 =?
(A) 36
(B) 24
(C) 8
(D) 4
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
16. What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 1 2 3 4 5 9 8 7 1 2 3 4 5 9 8 7 1 2 3 4 9 8
(A) 7
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
17. Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?.
(A) Q
(B) K
(C) P
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
18. Meena correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after eighteenth May but before twenty second May. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is before twenty-fourth May but after twentieth May. On which date in May was definitely their father’s birthday?
(A) Twentieth
(B) Nineteenth
(C) Eighteenth
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 19—20) Study the following information and answer the questions given below—
(i) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
(ii) ‘P x Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
(iii)’ P — Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
(iv) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
19. Which of the following means ‘M is maternal uncle of ‘T’?
(A) M ÷ K + T
(B) M x K + T
(C) M x K – T
(D) M ÷ K – T
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
20. Which of the following means ‘H’ is paternal grandfather of ‘T’?
(A) H ÷ J ÷ T
(B) T x K + H
(C) H ÷ J x T
(D) H – J + T
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 21-25) Following questions are based on the five three- digit numbers given below –
832 965 748 259 614
21. Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 4
Ans. (E)
22. Which of the following is the sum of the first and the second digits of the highest number?
(A) 11
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
23. If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number?
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3
Ans. (A)
24.If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number?
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 5
Ans. (E)
25. Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third highest number?
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 7
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 26—31) In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
26. Statements:
All stones are poles.
All poles are desks.
Some desks are nets.
All nets are days.
Conclusions:
I. Some nets are stones.
II Some desks are stones.
III. Some days are desks.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and Ill follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
27. Statements:
Some months are weeks. Some weeks are years.
All years are buses. All buses are trains.
Conclusions:
1. Some trains are weeks.
ll. Some buses are weeks.
III Some trains are months.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
28. Statements:
Some stations are rails.
All rails are rivers.
All rivers are papers.
Some papers are cards.
Conclusions:
I. Some cards are stations.
II. Some rivers are stations.
III. Some cards are rivers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow
Ans. (C)
29. Statements:
All windows are roofs.
All roofs are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Some plates are carpets.
Conclusions:
I. Some plates are windows.
II Some glasses are windows.
III. Some carpets are roofs.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only I and II follow
Ans. (C)
30. Statements:
All trees are jungles.
All jungles are houses.
All houses are buildings.
All buildings are villages.
Conclusions:
I. Some villages are houses.
II Some buildings are jungles
III. Some houses are trees.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (D)
31. Statements:
Some books are calendars.
No calendar is pa per.
All papers are pencils
Some pencils are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. Some chairs are books.
II. No chair is book.
III. Some pencils are calendars.
(A) None follows
(B) Only either I or II follows
(C) Only either I or II and III follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II follows
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 32—37) Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below— M 5% P U 2 A $ 4 3 Z E K 1 9 Q R I @ D 7 F Ô 8 W N 6 # V (C) J * Y
32. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth from the tight end of the above arrangement?
(A) N
(B) $
(C) 4
(D) W
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
33. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above arrangement?
(A) U
(B) D
(C) E
(D) C
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
35. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) P5A
(B) 4AE
(C) Q1K
(D) F8@
(E) VN*
Ans. (E)
37. If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end?
(A) E
(B) K
(C) Z
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 38—43) In each question below is given a group digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of Digits / Symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Digit / Symbol:
5@ 3 © 98 % b142$ # 76 *
Letter Code:
PIMAEGFJHBDNRQTU
Conditions:
(i) If the first unit is a symbol arid the last unit is an even digit both are to be coded as the code for the even digit.
(ii) If the first unit is an even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the symbol.
(iv) If both the first and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z.
38. 9 @ 374 %
(A) EIMQBF
(B) FBQMIE
(C) ZIMQBZ
(D) FIMQBF
(E) None of these
Ans. (D)
39. 29 © $ # 1
(A) HEANRD
(B) DEANRH
(C) DEANRD
(D) HEANRH
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
40. * 479 @ C
(A) UBQEIA
(B) ZBQEIA
(C ZBQEIZ
(D) ABQEIU
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
41. % 286 $ 3
(A) FDCTNF
(B) FDCTNM
(C) FCDTNM
(D) ZDGTNZ
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
42. 54 # * @ 6
(A) PBURIT
(B) BTMAEB
(C) ZTMAEB
(D) NTMAEB
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
43. $ 63 © 94
(A) NTMAEN
(B) BTMAEB
(C) ZTMAFB
(D) NTMAEB
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
44. Who is to the immediate left of D?
(A) H
(B) C
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
45. Who is second to the right of E?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) H
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
46. Who is third to the left of B?
(A) E
(B) H
(C) F
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
47. What is the position of C with respect to A?
(A) Third to the left
(B) Third to the right
(C) Fifth to the left
(D) Fourth to the right
(E) Fifth to the right
Ans. (D)
48. In which of following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons?
(A) BGC
(B) EFB
(C) DAH
(D) AEF
(E) GCD
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 49—50)
In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and U are used with the following meaning as illustrated below—
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P U Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P’ is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
49. Statements:
D # K, K @ T, T $ M, M % J
Conclusions:
I. J @ T
II. J % T
III.D @ T
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only either I or II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only either I or II and III are true
Ans. (E)
50. Statements:
R @ N © D, D $ J, J # B
Conclusions:
I. R @ J
II. J @ N
III. B @) D
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D)Only III is true
(E) Only I and III are true
Ans. (C)
Free Verbal Reasoning Online Practice Test
Test of Verbal Reasoning Solved Questions
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ORGANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
2. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter only once in each word?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (B)
3. The position of how many digits in the dumber 8247531 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
4. In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3$ and NEWS is written as $1@8. How is SOME written in that code?
(A) 8% 51
(B) 85% 8
(C) 8@ 51
(D) 8% 31
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
5. In a certain code language ‘how many books’ is written as ‘sa da na’ and ‘many more days’ is written as ‘ka pa da’. How is ‘books’ written in that code language?
(A) sa
(B) na
(C) sa or na
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
6. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as ‘PKBNXSHQ’. How is SANCTION written in that code?
(A) TBODMNHS
(B) DOBTMNHS
(C) TBODSHNM
(D) DOBTOPJU
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
7. The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
8. ‘BE’ is related to ‘GJ’ in the same way as ‘PS’ is related to……..?
(A) UY
(B) UX
(C) UZ
(D) VY
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
9. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored the highest marks?
(A) P
(B) T
(C) R
(0) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
10. Pointing to a girl, Nidhi said, ‘she is the daughter of my grandmother’s only child’. how is the girl related to Nidhi?
(A) Sister
(B) Self
(C) Cousin sister
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
11. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to the right of R who is sixteenth from the right end of the row. What is W’s position from the right end of the row?
(A) Eleventh
(B) Tenth
(C) Twelfth
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 12—14) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow— Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organized in a week from Monday to Saturday with one play each day and no play was organized on one of these days. Play D was organized before Thursday but after Monday. Play E was organized on Saturday. Play C was not organized on the first day. Play B was organized on the next day on which play C was organized. Play A was organized on
12.On which day was play B organized?
(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
13. On which day no play was organized?
(A) Monday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Data inadequate
(F) None of these
Ans. (A)
14. Which play was organized on Wednesday?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
15. If’ ‘÷’ means ‘+‘; ‘x’ means ‘- ‘, ‘ + ‘ means x’ and - means +then 24-4 ÷ 6 x 3+ 4 =?
(A) 36
(B) 24
(C) 8
(D) 4
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
16. What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 1 2 3 4 5 9 8 7 1 2 3 4 5 9 8 7 1 2 3 4 9 8
(A) 7
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
17. Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?.
(A) Q
(B) K
(C) P
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
18. Meena correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after eighteenth May but before twenty second May. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is before twenty-fourth May but after twentieth May. On which date in May was definitely their father’s birthday?
(A) Twentieth
(B) Nineteenth
(C) Eighteenth
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 19—20) Study the following information and answer the questions given below—
(i) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
(ii) ‘P x Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
(iii)’ P — Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
(iv) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
19. Which of the following means ‘M is maternal uncle of ‘T’?
(A) M ÷ K + T
(B) M x K + T
(C) M x K – T
(D) M ÷ K – T
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
20. Which of the following means ‘H’ is paternal grandfather of ‘T’?
(A) H ÷ J ÷ T
(B) T x K + H
(C) H ÷ J x T
(D) H – J + T
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 21-25) Following questions are based on the five three- digit numbers given below –
832 965 748 259 614
21. Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 4
Ans. (E)
22. Which of the following is the sum of the first and the second digits of the highest number?
(A) 11
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
23. If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number?
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3
Ans. (A)
24.If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number?
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 5
Ans. (E)
25. Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third highest number?
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 7
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 26—31) In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
26. Statements:
All stones are poles.
All poles are desks.
Some desks are nets.
All nets are days.
Conclusions:
I. Some nets are stones.
II Some desks are stones.
III. Some days are desks.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and Ill follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
27. Statements:
Some months are weeks. Some weeks are years.
All years are buses. All buses are trains.
Conclusions:
1. Some trains are weeks.
ll. Some buses are weeks.
III Some trains are months.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
28. Statements:
Some stations are rails.
All rails are rivers.
All rivers are papers.
Some papers are cards.
Conclusions:
I. Some cards are stations.
II. Some rivers are stations.
III. Some cards are rivers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow
Ans. (C)
29. Statements:
All windows are roofs.
All roofs are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Some plates are carpets.
Conclusions:
I. Some plates are windows.
II Some glasses are windows.
III. Some carpets are roofs.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only I and II follow
Ans. (C)
30. Statements:
All trees are jungles.
All jungles are houses.
All houses are buildings.
All buildings are villages.
Conclusions:
I. Some villages are houses.
II Some buildings are jungles
III. Some houses are trees.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (D)
31. Statements:
Some books are calendars.
No calendar is pa per.
All papers are pencils
Some pencils are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. Some chairs are books.
II. No chair is book.
III. Some pencils are calendars.
(A) None follows
(B) Only either I or II follows
(C) Only either I or II and III follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II follows
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 32—37) Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below— M 5% P U 2 A $ 4 3 Z E K 1 9 Q R I @ D 7 F Ô 8 W N 6 # V (C) J * Y
32. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth from the tight end of the above arrangement?
(A) N
(B) $
(C) 4
(D) W
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
33. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above arrangement?
(A) U
(B) D
(C) E
(D) C
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
35. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) P5A
(B) 4AE
(C) Q1K
(D) F8@
(E) VN*
Ans. (E)
37. If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end?
(A) E
(B) K
(C) Z
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 38—43) In each question below is given a group digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of Digits / Symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Digit / Symbol:
5@ 3 © 98 % b142$ # 76 *
Letter Code:
PIMAEGFJHBDNRQTU
Conditions:
(i) If the first unit is a symbol arid the last unit is an even digit both are to be coded as the code for the even digit.
(ii) If the first unit is an even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the symbol.
(iv) If both the first and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z.
38. 9 @ 374 %
(A) EIMQBF
(B) FBQMIE
(C) ZIMQBZ
(D) FIMQBF
(E) None of these
Ans. (D)
39. 29 © $ # 1
(A) HEANRD
(B) DEANRH
(C) DEANRD
(D) HEANRH
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
40. * 479 @ C
(A) UBQEIA
(B) ZBQEIA
(C ZBQEIZ
(D) ABQEIU
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
41. % 286 $ 3
(A) FDCTNF
(B) FDCTNM
(C) FCDTNM
(D) ZDGTNZ
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
42. 54 # * @ 6
(A) PBURIT
(B) BTMAEB
(C) ZTMAEB
(D) NTMAEB
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
43. $ 63 © 94
(A) NTMAEN
(B) BTMAEB
(C) ZTMAFB
(D) NTMAEB
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
44. Who is to the immediate left of D?
(A) H
(B) C
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
45. Who is second to the right of E?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) H
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
46. Who is third to the left of B?
(A) E
(B) H
(C) F
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
47. What is the position of C with respect to A?
(A) Third to the left
(B) Third to the right
(C) Fifth to the left
(D) Fourth to the right
(E) Fifth to the right
Ans. (D)
48. In which of following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons?
(A) BGC
(B) EFB
(C) DAH
(D) AEF
(E) GCD
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 49—50)
In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and U are used with the following meaning as illustrated below—
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P U Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P’ is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
49. Statements:
D # K, K @ T, T $ M, M % J
Conclusions:
I. J @ T
II. J % T
III.D @ T
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only either I or II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only either I or II and III are true
Ans. (E)
50. Statements:
R @ N © D, D $ J, J # B
Conclusions:
I. R @ J
II. J @ N
III. B @) D
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D)Only III is true
(E) Only I and III are true
Ans. (C)
Free Reasoning Questions for BEL Graduate Engineers Exam
Free Reasoning Questions for BEL Graduate Engineers Exam
BEL graduate engineer Sample practice paper Reasoning
Directions: ( 1-2): The sentence given below has been called ‘statement’ (A) and the second sentence given below it has been called ‘Reason’ (R). Find out which ones of the following choices (in Qs. I and Qs. 2) are correct.
1. Statement (A): Robert Clive defeated Slraj-ud-daulah in the Battle of Plassey.
Reason (R): The army of Clive was the best and it followed the best strategic policy.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect but R is correct
Ans. (a)
2. Statement (A): The Hoyesala sculptures have highly detailed descriptions and ornamentation.
Reason (R): Hoyesala sculptures are soft; these have been created in a Chloristic Schism
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect hut R is correct
Ans. (c)
3. State which are of the actions would be most suitable in the situation that has been described below.
Situation: The incessant rains, which have been continuing for the past several days, have created the problem of deluge; that is because the river bed is full of silt and mud.
Actions:
I. The people living close to the river should be transferred to a safer place.
II. People should be given information about the imminent danger on radio/television
III. Immediately after the reduction of water level of the river, the silt and mud should be removed from the river bed.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) None of these follows
(d) All of these follow
Ans. (d)
Directions: (Qs. Nos. 4 to 6): In each of the question given below, two or three Statements have been given. Below each of these Statements, two Conclusions, marked as (A) and (B), have been given. You should assume the given Statement to be true, even if these may seem to be different from the commonly known facts and then, decide which one of the Conclusions can be logically drawn from the statements by ignoring the commonly known facts.
Give answer
(a) If only Conclusion (A) follows
(b) If only Conclusion (B) follows
(c) If either Conclusion (A) or Conclusion (B) follows
(d) If neither Conclusion (A) nor Conclusion (B) follows.
4. Statements:
I. Some kites are horses.
II. All the horses are dogs.
Conclusions:
(A) All the dogs are horses
(B) Some horses are dogs
Ans. (b)
5. Statements:
I. All papers arc pencils.
II. All pencils are erasers.
Conclusions:
(A) Some erasers are papers
(B) Some pencils are not papers
Ans. (d)
6. Statements:
I. All the elements are birds.
II. All the birds are cows.
Conclusions:
(A) Some cows are birds.
(B) Some elephants are cows.
Ans. (d)
Directions (Qs. Nos. 7 to 12): In the questions given below one or more than one Conclusions have been given after some Statements. Select that alternative in which, the drawn conclusions are correct.
7. Statements:
I. All the offices remain closed on Saturdays
II. Raju is an assistant in the office.
Conclusions:
(a) Raju will not go to the office
(b) Raju goes to the office on Saturdays because he is an assistant
(c) Raju is an assistant in a government’ office
(d) Raju does not go to his office on Saturdays
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (d)
8. Statements:
I. No pen is hen.
II. Some hens are healthy.
Conclusions:
(A) No pen is healthy
(B) No healthy thing is pen
The correct conclusion are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (d)
9. Statements:
I. All the students passed the examination.
II. Some students are girls.
Conclusions:
A. Some boys passed the examination
B. All the girl students failed in the examination
C. None of the boys passed the examination
D. None of the girl students failed in the examination
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (c)
10. Statements:
I. All the servants are masters.
II. All the masters are cruel.
Conclusions:
A. All servants are cruel
B. All the cruel persons are servants.
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow.
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (d)
11. Statements:
I. No liquor is in sweet.
II. Some liquors are fragrant.
Conclusions:
(A) No sweet thing is fragrant
(B) No fragrant thing is sweet
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (d)
12. Statements:
I. All the bats are balls.
II. No ball is wicket.
Conclusions:
(A) No bat is wicket
(B) All wickets are bats
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows.
Ans. (a)
13. AK, EO, IS, ?, QA, UE
(a) LV
(b) MW
(c) NX
(d) LW
Ans. (b)
14. Five students participated in an examination for getting scholarship. Sudha got more marks than Pooja. Kavita got less marks than Suma but more marks than Sudha. Mamta got marks in between the marks of Pooja and Sudha. Who got the least marks in the examination?
(a) Kavita
(b) Pooja
(c) Mamta
(d) Suma
Ans. (b)
15. Statements: Soldiers serve their country.
Conclusions:
(a) Those who serve their country, are soldiers
(b) Women do not serve their country because they are not soldiers
(c) Generally, men serve their country
(d) Some men, who are soldiers, serve their country
Ans. (d)
16. Statements: Most of the students have exceptional abilities.
Conclusions:
(a) Some students have exceptional abilities
(b) There is no student who is not exceptional
(c) There are some students who have less than average abilities
(d) All the students have exceptional abilities
Ans. (c)
17. If ‘+‘ means ‘divide’, ‘—‘ means ‘equal’, ‘x’ means add’, ÷ means “is greater than”, ‘=‘ means “is less than”, ‘>‘ means ‘multiply’ and ‘<‘means ‘subtract’, then which one of the following choices is correct? (a) 5 + 2 x 1 = 3 + 4 > 1
(b) 5>2 x 1—3 > 4 < 1 (c) 5 x 2 < 1—3 < 4 x 1 (d) 5 < 2 x 1—3 > 4 x 1
Ans. (c)
18. In a row of 16 boys, when Prakash moved two places to his left, then he came at seventh place from the left. What was his place in the row from the right before this change?
(a) Twelfth
(b) Tenth
(c) Fourteenth
(d) Eighth
Ans. (b)
19. If the 11th day of a month is Saturday, which of the following days will occur five times in that month?
(a) Sunday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Saturday
(d) Friday
Ans. (d)
20. If South-West becomes North-East become?
(a) West
(b) South-West
(c) South
(d) North-West
Ans. (a)
21. I am facing north which of the following sequence of turnings will NOT lead me to face west?
(a) Left, Left; Right, Right; Right, Right, .Right
(b) Right, Right; Right, Right; Left, Right, Left
(c) Right, Right; Left, Right; Right, Left, Left
(d) Right, Left; Left, Right; Right, Left, Left
Ans. (c)
22. If 425 = 22, 648 = 52 and 741 = 11; what is 538=?
(a) 33
(b) 42
(c) 43
(d) 15
Ans. (c)
23. There is a common property shared by all the four numbers given below. Four clues are given to find out the common property. Find out which clue helps you to identify the common property
Numbers: 5730, 4724, 6312, 8316
Clues:
(a) All the four digits.
(b) First two digits
(c) First two and the last two digits
(d) First and third and second and fourth digits
Ans. (c)
24. Find out the missing member in the sequence:
Red, Blue,…….. Yellow
(a) Green
(b) Orange
(c) Yellow
(d) Indigo
Ans. (a)
25. In a queue to 70 persons at the fee counter of a college Mohan’s position from the window is 54th .How many persons are behind him?
(a) 15
(b) 17
(c) 16
(d) 18
Ans. (c)
BEL graduate engineer Sample practice paper Reasoning
Directions: ( 1-2): The sentence given below has been called ‘statement’ (A) and the second sentence given below it has been called ‘Reason’ (R). Find out which ones of the following choices (in Qs. I and Qs. 2) are correct.
1. Statement (A): Robert Clive defeated Slraj-ud-daulah in the Battle of Plassey.
Reason (R): The army of Clive was the best and it followed the best strategic policy.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect but R is correct
Ans. (a)
2. Statement (A): The Hoyesala sculptures have highly detailed descriptions and ornamentation.
Reason (R): Hoyesala sculptures are soft; these have been created in a Chloristic Schism
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect hut R is correct
Ans. (c)
3. State which are of the actions would be most suitable in the situation that has been described below.
Situation: The incessant rains, which have been continuing for the past several days, have created the problem of deluge; that is because the river bed is full of silt and mud.
Actions:
I. The people living close to the river should be transferred to a safer place.
II. People should be given information about the imminent danger on radio/television
III. Immediately after the reduction of water level of the river, the silt and mud should be removed from the river bed.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) None of these follows
(d) All of these follow
Ans. (d)
Directions: (Qs. Nos. 4 to 6): In each of the question given below, two or three Statements have been given. Below each of these Statements, two Conclusions, marked as (A) and (B), have been given. You should assume the given Statement to be true, even if these may seem to be different from the commonly known facts and then, decide which one of the Conclusions can be logically drawn from the statements by ignoring the commonly known facts.
Give answer
(a) If only Conclusion (A) follows
(b) If only Conclusion (B) follows
(c) If either Conclusion (A) or Conclusion (B) follows
(d) If neither Conclusion (A) nor Conclusion (B) follows.
4. Statements:
I. Some kites are horses.
II. All the horses are dogs.
Conclusions:
(A) All the dogs are horses
(B) Some horses are dogs
Ans. (b)
5. Statements:
I. All papers arc pencils.
II. All pencils are erasers.
Conclusions:
(A) Some erasers are papers
(B) Some pencils are not papers
Ans. (d)
6. Statements:
I. All the elements are birds.
II. All the birds are cows.
Conclusions:
(A) Some cows are birds.
(B) Some elephants are cows.
Ans. (d)
Directions (Qs. Nos. 7 to 12): In the questions given below one or more than one Conclusions have been given after some Statements. Select that alternative in which, the drawn conclusions are correct.
7. Statements:
I. All the offices remain closed on Saturdays
II. Raju is an assistant in the office.
Conclusions:
(a) Raju will not go to the office
(b) Raju goes to the office on Saturdays because he is an assistant
(c) Raju is an assistant in a government’ office
(d) Raju does not go to his office on Saturdays
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (d)
8. Statements:
I. No pen is hen.
II. Some hens are healthy.
Conclusions:
(A) No pen is healthy
(B) No healthy thing is pen
The correct conclusion are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (d)
9. Statements:
I. All the students passed the examination.
II. Some students are girls.
Conclusions:
A. Some boys passed the examination
B. All the girl students failed in the examination
C. None of the boys passed the examination
D. None of the girl students failed in the examination
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (c)
10. Statements:
I. All the servants are masters.
II. All the masters are cruel.
Conclusions:
A. All servants are cruel
B. All the cruel persons are servants.
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow.
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (d)
11. Statements:
I. No liquor is in sweet.
II. Some liquors are fragrant.
Conclusions:
(A) No sweet thing is fragrant
(B) No fragrant thing is sweet
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows
Ans. (d)
12. Statements:
I. All the bats are balls.
II. No ball is wicket.
Conclusions:
(A) No bat is wicket
(B) All wickets are bats
The correct conclusions are
(a) Only conclusion A follows
(b) Only conclusion B follows
(c) Both conclusion A and conclusion B follow
(d) Neither conclusion A nor conclusion B follows.
Ans. (a)
13. AK, EO, IS, ?, QA, UE
(a) LV
(b) MW
(c) NX
(d) LW
Ans. (b)
14. Five students participated in an examination for getting scholarship. Sudha got more marks than Pooja. Kavita got less marks than Suma but more marks than Sudha. Mamta got marks in between the marks of Pooja and Sudha. Who got the least marks in the examination?
(a) Kavita
(b) Pooja
(c) Mamta
(d) Suma
Ans. (b)
15. Statements: Soldiers serve their country.
Conclusions:
(a) Those who serve their country, are soldiers
(b) Women do not serve their country because they are not soldiers
(c) Generally, men serve their country
(d) Some men, who are soldiers, serve their country
Ans. (d)
16. Statements: Most of the students have exceptional abilities.
Conclusions:
(a) Some students have exceptional abilities
(b) There is no student who is not exceptional
(c) There are some students who have less than average abilities
(d) All the students have exceptional abilities
Ans. (c)
17. If ‘+‘ means ‘divide’, ‘—‘ means ‘equal’, ‘x’ means add’, ÷ means “is greater than”, ‘=‘ means “is less than”, ‘>‘ means ‘multiply’ and ‘<‘means ‘subtract’, then which one of the following choices is correct? (a) 5 + 2 x 1 = 3 + 4 > 1
(b) 5>2 x 1—3 > 4 < 1 (c) 5 x 2 < 1—3 < 4 x 1 (d) 5 < 2 x 1—3 > 4 x 1
Ans. (c)
18. In a row of 16 boys, when Prakash moved two places to his left, then he came at seventh place from the left. What was his place in the row from the right before this change?
(a) Twelfth
(b) Tenth
(c) Fourteenth
(d) Eighth
Ans. (b)
19. If the 11th day of a month is Saturday, which of the following days will occur five times in that month?
(a) Sunday
(b) Tuesday
(c) Saturday
(d) Friday
Ans. (d)
20. If South-West becomes North-East become?
(a) West
(b) South-West
(c) South
(d) North-West
Ans. (a)
21. I am facing north which of the following sequence of turnings will NOT lead me to face west?
(a) Left, Left; Right, Right; Right, Right, .Right
(b) Right, Right; Right, Right; Left, Right, Left
(c) Right, Right; Left, Right; Right, Left, Left
(d) Right, Left; Left, Right; Right, Left, Left
Ans. (c)
22. If 425 = 22, 648 = 52 and 741 = 11; what is 538=?
(a) 33
(b) 42
(c) 43
(d) 15
Ans. (c)
23. There is a common property shared by all the four numbers given below. Four clues are given to find out the common property. Find out which clue helps you to identify the common property
Numbers: 5730, 4724, 6312, 8316
Clues:
(a) All the four digits.
(b) First two digits
(c) First two and the last two digits
(d) First and third and second and fourth digits
Ans. (c)
24. Find out the missing member in the sequence:
Red, Blue,…….. Yellow
(a) Green
(b) Orange
(c) Yellow
(d) Indigo
Ans. (a)
25. In a queue to 70 persons at the fee counter of a college Mohan’s position from the window is 54th .How many persons are behind him?
(a) 15
(b) 17
(c) 16
(d) 18
Ans. (c)
Mental Ability Free Sample Paper
Mental Ability Free Sample Paper
Mental Ability and Reasoning: Mental Ability Sample Paper
Directions (1-4) :In each of the following questions a statement is followed by two assumptions (a) and (b).
Mark answer
(A) if only assumption (a) is implicit
(B) if only assumption (b) is implicit
(C) if both (a) and (b) are implicit
(D) if neither (a) nor (b) is implicit
1. Statement: Ram is the tallest among all the students of Class – x. Assumptions :
(a) The heights of all the students of Class X are known.
(b) No comparison is possible with the students of other classes as there is no information about their heights.
Ans:-A
2. Statement “If you are intelligent we will make you a student of engineering. If not, we will make you intelligent-An advertisement. Assumptions:
(a) All youth want to take admission in engineering course.
(b) Any one who wants to take admission in engineering course, he/she can do so.
Ans:-D
3. Statement: ‘To stop the train pull chain. There is a fine of Rs. 250 for improper use” Assumptions : (a) If chain is pulled the train stops automatically.
(b) Chain can be pulled for improper use.
Ans:-C
4. Statement : It was my fault to depend upon Shyam for financial help.
Assumptions: (a) Financial condition of Shyam is not good.
(b) If one needs financial help then Shyam is not reliable.
Ans:-D
Directions (5-6) Study the following number sequence and answer the questions that follow:
5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3 4 9 6
5. How many odd numbers are the above sequence are immediately
Followed by an odd number?
(A)More than4
(B)2
(C)3
(D)4
Ans:-A
6. How many odd numbers are, there in the sequence which are immediately preceded and also immediately followed by an even number?
(A)5
(B)2
(C)3
(D) 4
Ans:-D
Directions In following letter series some of the letters are missing. The missing letters are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the Correct alternative;
7. ba-.b-aab-a-b
(A) babb
(B) abab
(C) abba
(D) baba
Ans:-C
8. There are four ways and you are coming from south. The way from south takes you away from the coffee house. It you go to straight it will take you to college. In which direction is the temple?.
(A)North
(B)West
(C) South
(D) East
Ans:-B
9. What will the next digit.
17, 24, 34, 31, 38, 68
(A) 45
(B), 53
(C)61,
(D)35
Ans:-A
Directions—(Q. 10—14): Find word from the given alternatives which is dissimilar from other words.
10. (A) John F. Kennedy
(B) Abraham Lincoln
(C) George Washington
(D) Gerald Ford
Ans. (D)
11. (A) gun
(B) Pistol
(C) Dagger
(D) Atom bomb
Ans. (C)
12. (A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (D)
13. (A) sword
(B) Needle
(C) Knife
(D) Scissors
Ans. (B)
14. (A) ship
(B) Shikara
(C) Aeroplane
(D) Boat
Ans. (C)
Directions for Questions 15 to 20: Of the six men of the literature X, Y, Z, U, V and W being considered here one belonged to the seventeenth century, two to the nineteenth century and three to the twentieth century. Four were great poets, three great novelists and four great dramatists. One of them wrote poetry oi4y while another wrote dramas only. Two contributed to Bengali literature, one to Hindi, two o Marathi and one to Tamil. The seventeenth century writer wrote dramas only and contributed to Bengali literature. The twentieth century Bengali writer contributed to all the above three forms. Both the Marathi writers belonged to the nineteenth century. One of them contributed to both poetry and novel, while the other wrote poetry only. The Hindi writer belonged to the twentieth century and contributed to poetry and drama. X belonged to the twentieth century. Y wrote poetry as well as novel but no drama, Z contributed to Hindi literature. U was a Marai1i poet of the nineteenth century who did not contribute to any other form of literature, V belonged to the seventeenth century and W contributed to novel and drama.
Now answer the following questions based on the above informations:
15. Which writer other than U contributed to Marathi literature?
(A) X
(B) Z
(C) Y
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
16. Which writer contributed to all the three forms of literature?
(A) X
(B) Y
(C) Z
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
17. To which form of literature did V contribute?
(A) Poetry
(B) Novel
(C) Drama
(D) All of these
Ans. (C)
18. To which language did Y contribute in the paragraph?
(A) Bengali
(B) Hindi
(C) Tamil
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
19. To which language did W contribute?
(A) Bengali
(B) Hindi
(C) Tamil
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
20. Which two of the following belonged to the twentieth century? -
(A) Y, Z
(B) Z, W
(C) V, W
(D) Y, W
Ans. (B)
Mental Ability and Reasoning: Mental Ability Sample Paper
Directions (1-4) :In each of the following questions a statement is followed by two assumptions (a) and (b).
Mark answer
(A) if only assumption (a) is implicit
(B) if only assumption (b) is implicit
(C) if both (a) and (b) are implicit
(D) if neither (a) nor (b) is implicit
1. Statement: Ram is the tallest among all the students of Class – x. Assumptions :
(a) The heights of all the students of Class X are known.
(b) No comparison is possible with the students of other classes as there is no information about their heights.
Ans:-A
2. Statement “If you are intelligent we will make you a student of engineering. If not, we will make you intelligent-An advertisement. Assumptions:
(a) All youth want to take admission in engineering course.
(b) Any one who wants to take admission in engineering course, he/she can do so.
Ans:-D
3. Statement: ‘To stop the train pull chain. There is a fine of Rs. 250 for improper use” Assumptions : (a) If chain is pulled the train stops automatically.
(b) Chain can be pulled for improper use.
Ans:-C
4. Statement : It was my fault to depend upon Shyam for financial help.
Assumptions: (a) Financial condition of Shyam is not good.
(b) If one needs financial help then Shyam is not reliable.
Ans:-D
Directions (5-6) Study the following number sequence and answer the questions that follow:
5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3 4 9 6
5. How many odd numbers are the above sequence are immediately
Followed by an odd number?
(A)More than4
(B)2
(C)3
(D)4
Ans:-A
6. How many odd numbers are, there in the sequence which are immediately preceded and also immediately followed by an even number?
(A)5
(B)2
(C)3
(D) 4
Ans:-D
Directions In following letter series some of the letters are missing. The missing letters are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the Correct alternative;
7. ba-.b-aab-a-b
(A) babb
(B) abab
(C) abba
(D) baba
Ans:-C
8. There are four ways and you are coming from south. The way from south takes you away from the coffee house. It you go to straight it will take you to college. In which direction is the temple?.
(A)North
(B)West
(C) South
(D) East
Ans:-B
9. What will the next digit.
17, 24, 34, 31, 38, 68
(A) 45
(B), 53
(C)61,
(D)35
Ans:-A
Directions—(Q. 10—14): Find word from the given alternatives which is dissimilar from other words.
10. (A) John F. Kennedy
(B) Abraham Lincoln
(C) George Washington
(D) Gerald Ford
Ans. (D)
11. (A) gun
(B) Pistol
(C) Dagger
(D) Atom bomb
Ans. (C)
12. (A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (D)
13. (A) sword
(B) Needle
(C) Knife
(D) Scissors
Ans. (B)
14. (A) ship
(B) Shikara
(C) Aeroplane
(D) Boat
Ans. (C)
Directions for Questions 15 to 20: Of the six men of the literature X, Y, Z, U, V and W being considered here one belonged to the seventeenth century, two to the nineteenth century and three to the twentieth century. Four were great poets, three great novelists and four great dramatists. One of them wrote poetry oi4y while another wrote dramas only. Two contributed to Bengali literature, one to Hindi, two o Marathi and one to Tamil. The seventeenth century writer wrote dramas only and contributed to Bengali literature. The twentieth century Bengali writer contributed to all the above three forms. Both the Marathi writers belonged to the nineteenth century. One of them contributed to both poetry and novel, while the other wrote poetry only. The Hindi writer belonged to the twentieth century and contributed to poetry and drama. X belonged to the twentieth century. Y wrote poetry as well as novel but no drama, Z contributed to Hindi literature. U was a Marai1i poet of the nineteenth century who did not contribute to any other form of literature, V belonged to the seventeenth century and W contributed to novel and drama.
Now answer the following questions based on the above informations:
15. Which writer other than U contributed to Marathi literature?
(A) X
(B) Z
(C) Y
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
16. Which writer contributed to all the three forms of literature?
(A) X
(B) Y
(C) Z
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
17. To which form of literature did V contribute?
(A) Poetry
(B) Novel
(C) Drama
(D) All of these
Ans. (C)
18. To which language did Y contribute in the paragraph?
(A) Bengali
(B) Hindi
(C) Tamil
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
19. To which language did W contribute?
(A) Bengali
(B) Hindi
(C) Tamil
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
20. Which two of the following belonged to the twentieth century? -
(A) Y, Z
(B) Z, W
(C) V, W
(D) Y, W
Ans. (B)
Reasoning Model Sample Paper For BANK PO Exams
Reasoning Model Sample Paper For BANK PO Exams
Reasoning Questions for Bank P.O Exams Bank Probationary Examination
Reasoning Sample Paper For bank po exam- Bank Exam Preparation
PO test For bank jobs
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRIBUNAL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. In a certain code DOWN is written as ‘5 @9 #’ and NAME is written as ‘# 6%3’. How is MODE written in that code?
(A)%653
(B) %@63
(C), %5@3
(D) %@53
(E) None of these
3. How m meaningful English words Scan be formed with the letters LGEU using each letter only once in each word?
(A)None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. if ‘R’ denotes ‘—‘, ‘Q’ denotes ‘X’, ‘W’ denotes ‘÷’ and ‘A’ denotes
‘ +‘, then
42 ‘W 7 R 8 A 6 Q 4 =?
(A) -22
(B) —168
(C) 22
(D) 28
(E) None of these
5, In a certain code THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU. How is
SOULFUL written in that code?
(A) VPTKKTE
(B) VPTKETK
(C) TPVKKTE
(D) TNRKMVG
(F) None of these
6. The positions of how many digits in the number 59164823 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. Mohan walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 15 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a right turn and walked 15 metres. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 95 metre
(B)50 metre
(C)70 metre
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
8. What should come next in the following letter series
P Q R S T A B C D E P Q R S A B
C D E P Q R S A B C D P Q
(A)R
(B)T
(C)A
(D)B
(E) None of these
9. In a certain code language, ‘how can you go’ is written as ‘ja da ka pa’; ‘can you come here’ is written as ‘na ka sa ja’ and ‘come and go’ is written as ‘ra pa sa’. How is ‘here’ written in that code language?
(A) ja
(B) na
(C) pa
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
10. What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet?
CEA, IKG, OQM,?
(A)STW
(B) WUS
(C)SWU
(D) UWS
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 11—15)Four statements are given followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from statements disregarding known facts.
11. Statements:
Some trains are cars.
All cars are branches.
All branches are nets.
Some nets are dresses.
Conclusions:
I. Some dresses are cars.
II. Some nets are trains.
III. Some branches are trains.
IV. Some dresses are trains.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and IV follow
(D) Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
12. Statements:
All papers are clips.
Some clips are boards.
Some boards are lanes.
All lanes are roads.
Conclusions:
I. Some roads are boards.
II. Some lanes are clips
III. Some boards are papers.
IV. Some roads are clips.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only I ,II and Ill follow
(D) Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
13. Statements:
Some pencils are kites.
Some kites are desks.
All desks are jungles.
All jungles are mountains.
Conclusions:
I. Some mountains are pencils.
II. Some jungles are pencils.
III. Some mountains are desks.
IV. Some jungles are kites
(A) Only I and III follow
(B)Only I, II and III follow
(C)Only III and IV follow
(D)Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
14. Statements:
All stones are hammers.
No hammer is ring.
Some rings are doors.
All doors are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are stones.
II. Some windows are rings
III. No window is stone
IV. Some rings are stones.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(ID) Only either I or III follows
(E) Only either I or III and II follow
15. Statements:
All pens are clocks.
Some clocks are tyres.
Some tyres are wheels.
Some wheels are buses.
Conclusions
I. Some buses are tyres.
II. Some wheels are clocks.
III. Some wheels are pens.
IV. Some buses are clocks.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only IV follows
Directions—(Q. 16—20) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is fourth to the right of A who is third to the right of B. K is fourth to the left of B and third to the right of D. C is third to the right of H. E is second to the left of C.
16. Who is to the immediate right of F?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) E
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
17. Who is third to the right of K?
(A) F
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
18. What is F’s position with respect to B?
(A)Second to the left
(B)Third to the right
(C)Fourth to the right
(D)Third to the left
(E)Fifth to the right
19. Who is fourth to the left of C?
(A)C
(B)A
(C)D
(D)K
(E) Data inadequate
20. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting between the first and the second persons?
(A)GFB
(B) BGH
(C)ADC
(D) KEC
(E)EGF
Directions_.(Q. 21—25) In the following questions, the symbols 0, C), ©, % and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q,
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’
‘P ? Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q,
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/ are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
21. Statements;
D? T ,T@R, R © M, M % K
Conclusions:
I R@D
II R%D
III K*T
IV. M?T
(A) Only either I or II is true
(B) Only III and IV are true
(C) Only either I or II and III are true
(D) Only either I or II and IV are true
(E) Only either I or II and III and IV are true
22. Statements
J @ F, F? N, N % H, H © G
Conclusions:
I G*N
II. N©J
III F*J
IV. J?G
(A) Only I and II are true
(B) Only I ,II and III are true
(C) Only II, III and IV are true
(D) All I, II, III and IV are true
(E) None of these
Conclusions
L R*D
H. V*R
I D@M
IV. M%D
23. Statements:
R * K, K % D, D @ V,V ? M
Conclusions
I R*D
II. V*R
III D@M
IV. M%D
(A) None is true
(B) Only III is true
(C) Only IV is true
(D) Only either III or IV is true
(E) Only either III or IV and II are true
24. Statements
B © T, T * R, R % F, F @K
Conclusions
I B%R
II F*T
III R%K
IV. K*T
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only IV is true
25.Statements:
F % N, N © W, W ?Y, Y * T
Conclusions:
I. F%W
IL T%N
III N%Y
IV. T%W
(A) Only I and III are true
(B) Only I and IV are true
(C) Only II and III are true
(D) Only I, II and IV are true
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 26—30) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered (I), (II) and (III). You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
26. Statement : Should there be complete ban on setting up of thermal power plants in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this is the only way to arrest further addition to environmental pollution.
II. No, there is a huge shortage of electricity in most parts of the country and hence gene ration of electricity needs to be augmented.
III No, many developed countries continue to set up thermal power plants in their countries.
(A) None is strong
(B) Only I is strong
(C) Only II is strong
(D) Only III is strong
(E) Only either I or II is strong
27. Statement : Should road repair work in big cities be carried out only late at night?
Arguments:
I. No, this way the work will never get completed.
II. No, there will be unnecessary use of electricity.
III. Yes, the commuters will face lot of problems due to repair work during the day.
(A) None is strong
(B) Only I is strong
(C) Only III is strong
(D) Only II and HI are strong
(E) Only I and II are strong
28. Statement: Should all the deemed universities be derecognized and attached to any of the central or state universities in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, many of these deemed universities do not conform to the required standards of a full-fledged university and hence the level of education is compromised.
II. No, these deemed universities have been able to introduce innovative courses suitable to the requirement of various industries as they are free from strict Govt. controls.
III. Yes, many such universities are basically money spinning activities and education takes a backseat in these institutions.
(A) Only l and II are strong
(B) Only II and III are strong
(C)Only I and III are strong
(D) All I II and III are strong
(E) None of these
29. Statement: Should there be a cap on drawing groundwater for irrigation purposes in India?
Arguments:
I. No, irrigation is of prime importance for food production in India and it is heavily dependent on groundwater in many parts of the country.
II. Yes, water tables have gone down to alarmingly low levels in some parts of the country where irrigation is primarily dependent on groundwater, which may lead to serious environmental consequences.
III. Yes, India just cannot afford to draw groundwater any further as the international agencies have cautioned India against it.
(A) Only I and II are strong
(B)Only II and III are strong
(C) Only I and III are strong
(D) All I,II and III are strong
(E) None of these
30. Statement : Should there be a restriction on the construction of high rise buildings in big cities in India?
Arguments:
I. No, big cities in India do not have adequate open land plots to accommodate the growing population.
II. Yes, only the builders and developers benefit from the construction of high rise buildings.
III. Yes, the Govt. should first provide adequate infrastructural facilities to existing buildings before allowing the construction of new high rise buildings.
(A) Only II is strong
(B) Only III is strong
(C) Only I and III are strong
(D) Only I is strong
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 31—35) In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement:
The Govt. has decided to auction construction of highways to private entities in several blocks across the country on build-operate-transfer basis.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. An adequate number of private entities may not respond to the Government’s auction notification.
II. Many private entities in the country are capable of constructing highways within reasonable time.
III. The Govt’s proposal of build-operate-transfer may financially benefit the private
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only I and III are implicit
(E) None of these
32. Statement :
Govt. has urged all the citizens to use electronic media for carrying out their daily activities, whenever possible, instead of using paper as the manufacture of paper requires the cutting down of a large number of trees causing severe damage to the ecosystem.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. Most people may be capable of using electronic media to carry out various routines.
II. Most people may have access to electronic media for carrying out their daily routine activites.
III. People at large may reject the Govt.’s appeal and continue using paper as before.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) None of these
33 Statement :
The apex body controlling universities in the country has decided to revise the syllabus of all the technical courses to make them focussed towards the present needs of the industry thereby making the technical graduates more employable than they are at present.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. Technical colleges affiliated to different universities may not welcome the apex body’s decision and may continue with the same syllabus as at present.
II. The industry may welcome the decision of the apex body and scale up their hiring from these colleges.
III. The Govt. may not allow the apex body to implement its decision in all the colleges as it may lead to chaos.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I is implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) Only I and II are implicit
34. Statement Police authority cordoned off the entire locality for the entire day and stopped all vehicular movement for the visit of a top functionary of the government in view of the threat perception and advised all the residents in the area to limit their movement outside their dwellings.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. Police personnel may not be able to control the vehicular movement in the locality and may seek help from the armed forces.
II. People living in the locality may move out of their houses for the day to avoid inconvenience.
III. The Govt. functionary may request the police authority to lift the ban on movement of residents of the locality outside their dwellings.
(A)None is implicit
(B) Only I is implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) Only II and III are implicit
35. Statement :The airlines have requested all their bonafide passengers to check the status of flight operations before leaving their homes as the fog is causing immense problems to normal flight operations.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. The majority of the air passengers may check the flight status before starting their journey to the airport.
II. The Govt. may take serious objection to the notice issued by the airline company.
III Majority of the passengers may cancel their tickets and postpone their journey till the situation becomes normal. -
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I is implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) Only I and III are implicit
Directions—.(Q. 36—40) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Give answers
(A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
(B) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(C) If the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
(D) If the inference is ‘probably false’, though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
(E) If the inference is ‘definitely false’, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
The deterioration in the overall asset quality of banks—gross Non- Performing Assets (NPAs) are reportedly 27% higher at the end of December 2009 than at the end of December 2008—is not surprising. Any slowdown in growth is bound to trigger a rise in NPAs as more and more companies default on loan repayments. The effect would be pronounced when the slowdown coincides with a severe global recession. But for the restructuring of loans permitted by the Central Bank on fairly generous terms, NPAs would have been still higher. Prudent banks that took care while sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction disbursement diligently should be able to weather the crisis. But it is one thing to have NPAs rise because of a cyclical downturn, it is quite another to have NPAs would have been still higher. Prudent banks that took care while sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction disbursement diligently should be able to weather the crisis. But it is one thing to have NPAs rise because of policy errors that are entirely within the realm of policymakers. And this is what we need to guard against. Excessively low interest rates skew the risk-reward equation by making projects that are actually not viable, appear viable—till interest rates reverse and the same projects cease to be viable I It is now well established that long periods of unduly low interest rates encourage banks to take more risks. A low interest rate regime driven by an easy money policy rather than macroeconomic fundamentals lead to excessive expansion of credit. It incentivizes banks to take on more risk in search of higher returns and to misprice risk.
36. Low interest rate on credit reduces the capacity to absorb various unaccounted risk factors.
37. Bank’s NPAs occur only due to economic factors.
38. The Central Bank always allows banks to restructure their loans in the event of rise in NPAs.
39. Lower interest rate cycle projects commercially unviable projects as viable.
40. Higher NPAs indicate shortcomings in disbursement and follow up of credit given by banks.
Directions—(Q. 41—45) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General Banking in a bank
The Candidate Must :
(i) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in Std. XII.
(ii) have secured at least 55 per cent marks in Graduation in any discipline.
(iii) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in post-graduate degree diploma in
Management/Economics / Statistics.
(iv) be at least 25 years and not be more than 35 years as on 1.3.2010.
(v) have post qualification work experience of at least 2 years as General Banking Officer in a bank.
(vi) have secured at least 50 per cent marks in written examination.
(vii) have secured at least 40 per cent marks in Personal Interview.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except
(a) at (iii) above, but has secured at least 60 per cent marks in CA or JCWA, the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment.
(b) at (vii) above, but have secured at least 65 per cent marks in the written examination and at least 35 per cent marks in the personal interview, the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment.
In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.3.2010. Mark answers :
(A) If the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
(B) If the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment.
(C) If the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment.
(D) If the candidate is to be selected
(E) If the candidate is not to be selected.
41. Shoan Majhi has secured 65 per cent marks in B.Sc. and 70 percent marks in M.Sc. Statistics. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three years after completing his post-graduation. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the written examination and 50 per cent marks in the personal interview. He was born on 8th July 1982.
42. Neeta Jaiswal was born on 2nd June 1980. She has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three years after completing her post-graduate degree in Economics with 60 percent marks. She has secured 68 per cent marks in HSC and 58
per cent marks in B.Com. She has also secured 50 per cent marks in both the written examination and personal interview.
43. Arindam Ghosh has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing his post-graduate diploma in management with 60 per cent marks. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 40 per cent marks in the personal interview. He has also secured 70 per cent marks in Std. XII. He was born on 25th February, 1975.
44. Kesav Vora was born on 8th November 1978. He has secured 65 per cent marks in Std. XII and 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has secured 58 per cent marks in M.A. Economics and 60 per cent marks in ICWA. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past two years after completing his education. He has also secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 45 per cent marks in personal interview.
45. Neha Salve has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing her post-graduate degree in Economics with 60 per cent marks. She has secured 60 per cent marks in both graduation and Std. XII. She was born on 24th August, 1979. She has secured 70 per cent marks in the written examination and 38 per cent marks in the personal interview.
Answers:
1 E
2 D
3 C
4 C
5 A
6 C
7 B
8 A
9 B
10 D
11 B
12 E
13 C
14 E
15 A
16 B
17 C
18 D
19 A
20 E
21 E
22 E
23 D
24 D
25 B
26 C
27 D
28 B
29 B
30 C
31 B
32 C
33 C
34 C
35 E
36 C
37 B
38 A
39 A
40 D
41 A
42 D
43 E
44 B
45 C
Reasoning Questions for Bank P.O Exams Bank Probationary Examination
Reasoning Sample Paper For bank po exam- Bank Exam Preparation
PO test For bank jobs
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRIBUNAL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. In a certain code DOWN is written as ‘5 @9 #’ and NAME is written as ‘# 6%3’. How is MODE written in that code?
(A)%653
(B) %@63
(C), %5@3
(D) %@53
(E) None of these
3. How m meaningful English words Scan be formed with the letters LGEU using each letter only once in each word?
(A)None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. if ‘R’ denotes ‘—‘, ‘Q’ denotes ‘X’, ‘W’ denotes ‘÷’ and ‘A’ denotes
‘ +‘, then
42 ‘W 7 R 8 A 6 Q 4 =?
(A) -22
(B) —168
(C) 22
(D) 28
(E) None of these
5, In a certain code THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU. How is
SOULFUL written in that code?
(A) VPTKKTE
(B) VPTKETK
(C) TPVKKTE
(D) TNRKMVG
(F) None of these
6. The positions of how many digits in the number 59164823 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. Mohan walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 15 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a right turn and walked 15 metres. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 95 metre
(B)50 metre
(C)70 metre
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
8. What should come next in the following letter series
P Q R S T A B C D E P Q R S A B
C D E P Q R S A B C D P Q
(A)R
(B)T
(C)A
(D)B
(E) None of these
9. In a certain code language, ‘how can you go’ is written as ‘ja da ka pa’; ‘can you come here’ is written as ‘na ka sa ja’ and ‘come and go’ is written as ‘ra pa sa’. How is ‘here’ written in that code language?
(A) ja
(B) na
(C) pa
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
10. What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet?
CEA, IKG, OQM,?
(A)STW
(B) WUS
(C)SWU
(D) UWS
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 11—15)Four statements are given followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from statements disregarding known facts.
11. Statements:
Some trains are cars.
All cars are branches.
All branches are nets.
Some nets are dresses.
Conclusions:
I. Some dresses are cars.
II. Some nets are trains.
III. Some branches are trains.
IV. Some dresses are trains.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and IV follow
(D) Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
12. Statements:
All papers are clips.
Some clips are boards.
Some boards are lanes.
All lanes are roads.
Conclusions:
I. Some roads are boards.
II. Some lanes are clips
III. Some boards are papers.
IV. Some roads are clips.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only I ,II and Ill follow
(D) Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
13. Statements:
Some pencils are kites.
Some kites are desks.
All desks are jungles.
All jungles are mountains.
Conclusions:
I. Some mountains are pencils.
II. Some jungles are pencils.
III. Some mountains are desks.
IV. Some jungles are kites
(A) Only I and III follow
(B)Only I, II and III follow
(C)Only III and IV follow
(D)Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
14. Statements:
All stones are hammers.
No hammer is ring.
Some rings are doors.
All doors are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are stones.
II. Some windows are rings
III. No window is stone
IV. Some rings are stones.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(ID) Only either I or III follows
(E) Only either I or III and II follow
15. Statements:
All pens are clocks.
Some clocks are tyres.
Some tyres are wheels.
Some wheels are buses.
Conclusions
I. Some buses are tyres.
II. Some wheels are clocks.
III. Some wheels are pens.
IV. Some buses are clocks.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only IV follows
Directions—(Q. 16—20) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is fourth to the right of A who is third to the right of B. K is fourth to the left of B and third to the right of D. C is third to the right of H. E is second to the left of C.
16. Who is to the immediate right of F?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) E
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
17. Who is third to the right of K?
(A) F
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
18. What is F’s position with respect to B?
(A)Second to the left
(B)Third to the right
(C)Fourth to the right
(D)Third to the left
(E)Fifth to the right
19. Who is fourth to the left of C?
(A)C
(B)A
(C)D
(D)K
(E) Data inadequate
20. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting between the first and the second persons?
(A)GFB
(B) BGH
(C)ADC
(D) KEC
(E)EGF
Directions_.(Q. 21—25) In the following questions, the symbols 0, C), ©, % and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q,
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’
‘P ? Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q,
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/ are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
21. Statements;
D? T ,T@R, R © M, M % K
Conclusions:
I R@D
II R%D
III K*T
IV. M?T
(A) Only either I or II is true
(B) Only III and IV are true
(C) Only either I or II and III are true
(D) Only either I or II and IV are true
(E) Only either I or II and III and IV are true
22. Statements
J @ F, F? N, N % H, H © G
Conclusions:
I G*N
II. N©J
III F*J
IV. J?G
(A) Only I and II are true
(B) Only I ,II and III are true
(C) Only II, III and IV are true
(D) All I, II, III and IV are true
(E) None of these
Conclusions
L R*D
H. V*R
I D@M
IV. M%D
23. Statements:
R * K, K % D, D @ V,V ? M
Conclusions
I R*D
II. V*R
III D@M
IV. M%D
(A) None is true
(B) Only III is true
(C) Only IV is true
(D) Only either III or IV is true
(E) Only either III or IV and II are true
24. Statements
B © T, T * R, R % F, F @K
Conclusions
I B%R
II F*T
III R%K
IV. K*T
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only IV is true
25.Statements:
F % N, N © W, W ?Y, Y * T
Conclusions:
I. F%W
IL T%N
III N%Y
IV. T%W
(A) Only I and III are true
(B) Only I and IV are true
(C) Only II and III are true
(D) Only I, II and IV are true
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 26—30) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered (I), (II) and (III). You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
26. Statement : Should there be complete ban on setting up of thermal power plants in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this is the only way to arrest further addition to environmental pollution.
II. No, there is a huge shortage of electricity in most parts of the country and hence gene ration of electricity needs to be augmented.
III No, many developed countries continue to set up thermal power plants in their countries.
(A) None is strong
(B) Only I is strong
(C) Only II is strong
(D) Only III is strong
(E) Only either I or II is strong
27. Statement : Should road repair work in big cities be carried out only late at night?
Arguments:
I. No, this way the work will never get completed.
II. No, there will be unnecessary use of electricity.
III. Yes, the commuters will face lot of problems due to repair work during the day.
(A) None is strong
(B) Only I is strong
(C) Only III is strong
(D) Only II and HI are strong
(E) Only I and II are strong
28. Statement: Should all the deemed universities be derecognized and attached to any of the central or state universities in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, many of these deemed universities do not conform to the required standards of a full-fledged university and hence the level of education is compromised.
II. No, these deemed universities have been able to introduce innovative courses suitable to the requirement of various industries as they are free from strict Govt. controls.
III. Yes, many such universities are basically money spinning activities and education takes a backseat in these institutions.
(A) Only l and II are strong
(B) Only II and III are strong
(C)Only I and III are strong
(D) All I II and III are strong
(E) None of these
29. Statement: Should there be a cap on drawing groundwater for irrigation purposes in India?
Arguments:
I. No, irrigation is of prime importance for food production in India and it is heavily dependent on groundwater in many parts of the country.
II. Yes, water tables have gone down to alarmingly low levels in some parts of the country where irrigation is primarily dependent on groundwater, which may lead to serious environmental consequences.
III. Yes, India just cannot afford to draw groundwater any further as the international agencies have cautioned India against it.
(A) Only I and II are strong
(B)Only II and III are strong
(C) Only I and III are strong
(D) All I,II and III are strong
(E) None of these
30. Statement : Should there be a restriction on the construction of high rise buildings in big cities in India?
Arguments:
I. No, big cities in India do not have adequate open land plots to accommodate the growing population.
II. Yes, only the builders and developers benefit from the construction of high rise buildings.
III. Yes, the Govt. should first provide adequate infrastructural facilities to existing buildings before allowing the construction of new high rise buildings.
(A) Only II is strong
(B) Only III is strong
(C) Only I and III are strong
(D) Only I is strong
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 31—35) In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement:
The Govt. has decided to auction construction of highways to private entities in several blocks across the country on build-operate-transfer basis.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. An adequate number of private entities may not respond to the Government’s auction notification.
II. Many private entities in the country are capable of constructing highways within reasonable time.
III. The Govt’s proposal of build-operate-transfer may financially benefit the private
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only I and III are implicit
(E) None of these
32. Statement :
Govt. has urged all the citizens to use electronic media for carrying out their daily activities, whenever possible, instead of using paper as the manufacture of paper requires the cutting down of a large number of trees causing severe damage to the ecosystem.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. Most people may be capable of using electronic media to carry out various routines.
II. Most people may have access to electronic media for carrying out their daily routine activites.
III. People at large may reject the Govt.’s appeal and continue using paper as before.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) None of these
33 Statement :
The apex body controlling universities in the country has decided to revise the syllabus of all the technical courses to make them focussed towards the present needs of the industry thereby making the technical graduates more employable than they are at present.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. Technical colleges affiliated to different universities may not welcome the apex body’s decision and may continue with the same syllabus as at present.
II. The industry may welcome the decision of the apex body and scale up their hiring from these colleges.
III. The Govt. may not allow the apex body to implement its decision in all the colleges as it may lead to chaos.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I is implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) Only I and II are implicit
34. Statement Police authority cordoned off the entire locality for the entire day and stopped all vehicular movement for the visit of a top functionary of the government in view of the threat perception and advised all the residents in the area to limit their movement outside their dwellings.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. Police personnel may not be able to control the vehicular movement in the locality and may seek help from the armed forces.
II. People living in the locality may move out of their houses for the day to avoid inconvenience.
III. The Govt. functionary may request the police authority to lift the ban on movement of residents of the locality outside their dwellings.
(A)None is implicit
(B) Only I is implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) Only II and III are implicit
35. Statement :The airlines have requested all their bonafide passengers to check the status of flight operations before leaving their homes as the fog is causing immense problems to normal flight operations.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. The majority of the air passengers may check the flight status before starting their journey to the airport.
II. The Govt. may take serious objection to the notice issued by the airline company.
III Majority of the passengers may cancel their tickets and postpone their journey till the situation becomes normal. -
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I is implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) Only I and III are implicit
Directions—.(Q. 36—40) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Give answers
(A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
(B) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(C) If the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
(D) If the inference is ‘probably false’, though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
(E) If the inference is ‘definitely false’, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
The deterioration in the overall asset quality of banks—gross Non- Performing Assets (NPAs) are reportedly 27% higher at the end of December 2009 than at the end of December 2008—is not surprising. Any slowdown in growth is bound to trigger a rise in NPAs as more and more companies default on loan repayments. The effect would be pronounced when the slowdown coincides with a severe global recession. But for the restructuring of loans permitted by the Central Bank on fairly generous terms, NPAs would have been still higher. Prudent banks that took care while sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction disbursement diligently should be able to weather the crisis. But it is one thing to have NPAs rise because of a cyclical downturn, it is quite another to have NPAs would have been still higher. Prudent banks that took care while sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction disbursement diligently should be able to weather the crisis. But it is one thing to have NPAs rise because of policy errors that are entirely within the realm of policymakers. And this is what we need to guard against. Excessively low interest rates skew the risk-reward equation by making projects that are actually not viable, appear viable—till interest rates reverse and the same projects cease to be viable I It is now well established that long periods of unduly low interest rates encourage banks to take more risks. A low interest rate regime driven by an easy money policy rather than macroeconomic fundamentals lead to excessive expansion of credit. It incentivizes banks to take on more risk in search of higher returns and to misprice risk.
36. Low interest rate on credit reduces the capacity to absorb various unaccounted risk factors.
37. Bank’s NPAs occur only due to economic factors.
38. The Central Bank always allows banks to restructure their loans in the event of rise in NPAs.
39. Lower interest rate cycle projects commercially unviable projects as viable.
40. Higher NPAs indicate shortcomings in disbursement and follow up of credit given by banks.
Directions—(Q. 41—45) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General Banking in a bank
The Candidate Must :
(i) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in Std. XII.
(ii) have secured at least 55 per cent marks in Graduation in any discipline.
(iii) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in post-graduate degree diploma in
Management/Economics / Statistics.
(iv) be at least 25 years and not be more than 35 years as on 1.3.2010.
(v) have post qualification work experience of at least 2 years as General Banking Officer in a bank.
(vi) have secured at least 50 per cent marks in written examination.
(vii) have secured at least 40 per cent marks in Personal Interview.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except
(a) at (iii) above, but has secured at least 60 per cent marks in CA or JCWA, the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment.
(b) at (vii) above, but have secured at least 65 per cent marks in the written examination and at least 35 per cent marks in the personal interview, the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment.
In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.3.2010. Mark answers :
(A) If the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
(B) If the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment.
(C) If the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment.
(D) If the candidate is to be selected
(E) If the candidate is not to be selected.
41. Shoan Majhi has secured 65 per cent marks in B.Sc. and 70 percent marks in M.Sc. Statistics. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three years after completing his post-graduation. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the written examination and 50 per cent marks in the personal interview. He was born on 8th July 1982.
42. Neeta Jaiswal was born on 2nd June 1980. She has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three years after completing her post-graduate degree in Economics with 60 percent marks. She has secured 68 per cent marks in HSC and 58
per cent marks in B.Com. She has also secured 50 per cent marks in both the written examination and personal interview.
43. Arindam Ghosh has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing his post-graduate diploma in management with 60 per cent marks. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 40 per cent marks in the personal interview. He has also secured 70 per cent marks in Std. XII. He was born on 25th February, 1975.
44. Kesav Vora was born on 8th November 1978. He has secured 65 per cent marks in Std. XII and 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has secured 58 per cent marks in M.A. Economics and 60 per cent marks in ICWA. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past two years after completing his education. He has also secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 45 per cent marks in personal interview.
45. Neha Salve has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing her post-graduate degree in Economics with 60 per cent marks. She has secured 60 per cent marks in both graduation and Std. XII. She was born on 24th August, 1979. She has secured 70 per cent marks in the written examination and 38 per cent marks in the personal interview.
Answers:
1 E
2 D
3 C
4 C
5 A
6 C
7 B
8 A
9 B
10 D
11 B
12 E
13 C
14 E
15 A
16 B
17 C
18 D
19 A
20 E
21 E
22 E
23 D
24 D
25 B
26 C
27 D
28 B
29 B
30 C
31 B
32 C
33 C
34 C
35 E
36 C
37 B
38 A
39 A
40 D
41 A
42 D
43 E
44 B
45 C
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)