Critical Reasoning test Management Aptitude test MAT Questions For Free
Free Exam Questions based on previous MAT Questions
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: In each of the following questions, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions. Mark the answer as
1. if only conclusion I follows;
2. if only conclusion II follows;
3. if either I or II follows; and
4. if neither! nor II follows.
1. Statement: Morning walks are good for health.
Conclusions: I. All healthy people go for morning walks.
II. Evening walks are harmful.
Ans. (4)
2. Statement: The best way to escape from a problem is to solve it.
Conclusions: I. Your life will b dull if you don’t face a problem.
II. To escape from problems, you should always have some solutions with you.
Ans. (4)
3. Statement: Vegetable prices are soaring in the market.
Conclusions: I. Vegetables are becoming a rare commodity.
II. People cannot eat vegetables.
Ans. (4)
4. Statement: Until our country achieves economic equality, political freedom and democracy would be meaningless.
Conclusions: I. Political freedom and democracy. go hand in hand.
II. Economic equality leads to real political freedom and democracy.
Ans. (2)
5. Statement: Parents are prepared to pay any price for an elite education to their children.
Conclusions: I. All parents these days are very well off.
II. Parents have an obsessive passion for a perfect development of their children through good schooling.
Ans. (2)
DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 10: A statement is followed by two arguments I and ii. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Mark answer as
1. if only argument I is strong;
2. if only argument Ills strong;
3. if either 1 or II is strong; and
4. if neither I nor Ii is strong.
6. Statement: Should telecasting feature films be stopped?
Arguments: 1. Yes. Young children arc misguided by the feature films
11. No. This is the only way to educate the masses.
Ans. (2)
7. Statement: Should school education be made free in India?
Arguments: I. Yes. This is the only way to improve the level of literacy.
II. No. It would add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.
Ans. (1)
8. Statement: Should India stop missile development?
Arguments: I. Yes, The U.S.A. desires so.
II. No. The nation must always remain up-to-date in its defense preparedness.
Ans. (2)
9. Statement: Should we scrap the ‘Public Distribution System’ in India?
Arguments: I. Yes, Protectivism is over, everyone must get the bread on his/her own.
11. No. The poor do not get any benefit because of corruption.
Ans. (1)
10. Statement: Can pollution be controlled?
Arguments: I. Yes, if everyone realises the hazard it may create and cooperates to get rid of it, pollution may be controlled.
II. No. The crowded highways, factories and industries and an ever growing population eager to acquire more and more land for constructing houses are beyond control.
Ans. (4)
DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 15: A statement is followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and 111. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true. Decide which course(s) of action logically follow(s) for pursuing from the given options marked (1), (2), (‘3,) and (4,).
11. Statement: In one of the worst accidents in railway level crossing fifty people died when a bus carrying them collided on to a running train.
Courses of action: I, The train driver should immediately be suspended.
II. The driver of the bus should be tried in court for negligence on his part.
III. The railway authority should be asked to man all its level crossings.
1. None follows
2. Only and II follow
3. Only III follows
4. Only II and III follow
Ans. (3)
12. Statement: There was a spurt in criminal activities in the city during the recent
festival season.
Courses of action: I. The police should immediately investigate into the causes of this
increase.
II. In future the police should take adequate precaution to avoid
recurrence of such situation during the festival season.
III. The known criminals should be arrested before any such season.
1. None follows
2. Only I and II follow
3. Only II and III follow
4. All follow
Ans. (2)
13. Statement: A mass mortality of shrimps in ponds on the entire Andhra coast has recently been reported due to the presence of a virus.
Courses of action:
I. The Water of the ponds affected should immediately be treated for identifying the nature of the virus.
II. The catching of shrimps from the ponds should temporarily be stopped.
III. The fishermen should be asked to watch for the onset of such phenomenon in nature.
1. Only I follows
2. Only I and II follow
3. All follow
4. Only II and III follow
Ans. (2)
14. Statement: The world will have to feed more than 10 billion people in the next century of whom half will be in Asia and will eat rice as their staple.
Courses of Action
I. More funds should immediately be of action: allocated for rice research to help ensure adequate supplies.
II. The people in Asia should be encouraged to change their food habit.
III. Rice should be grown in countries outside Asia to meet the demand.
1. Only I and 11 follow
2. Only II and III follow
3. All follow
4. None follows
Ans. (1)
15. Statement: If the faculty members also join the strike, there is going to be a serious
problem.
Courses of Action:
I. The faculty members should be persuaded not to go on strike.
II. Those faculty members who join the strike should be suspended.
III. The management should not worry about such small things.
1. None follows
2. Only I follows
3. Only I and 11 follow
4. Only II and III follow
Ans. (2)
DIRECTIONS for question 16 to 19: Study the information given below answer these questions.
There are four friends A, B, C, D. One of them is a cricketer and studies Chemistry and Biology. A and B play football. Both football players study Maths. D is a boxer. One football player also studies Physics. The boxer studies Maths and Accounts. All the friends study two subjects each and play one game each.
16. Who is the cricketer?
l. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
Ans. (3)
17. Who studies Accounts and plays football?
1. A alone
2. B alone
3. D
4. A or B
Ans. (4)
18. Who studies Physics?
1. A or B
2. A alone
3. B alone
4. D
Ans. (1)
19. How many games are played and subjects studied by the four friends?
1. 1 game and 4 subjects
2. 2 games and 3 subjects
3. 3 games and 4 subjects
4. 3 games and 5 subjects
Ans. (4)
DIRECTIONS for questions 20 to 24: A statement is followed by three assumptions marked I, II, III. Check whether these assumptions are implicit in the statement or not. Possible combinations of assumptions are given against option (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the appropriate one.
20. Statement: “Buy pure and natural honey of company X” - an advertisement in
a newspaper.
Assumptions: I. Artificial honey can be pre pared.
II. People do not mind paying more for pure and, natural honey.
III. No other company supplies pure honey.
1. Only 1 is implicit
2. Only and II are implicit
3. Only I and Ill are implicit
4. All are implicit
Ans. (1)
21. Statement: “Fly with us and experience the pleasure of flying” an advertisement by an airlines.
Assumptions: I. More passengers may be attracted to travel by the airline after reading the advertisement.
II. People generally may prefer an enjoyable flight.
III. Other airlines may not be of faring the same facilities.
1. None is implicit
2. Only I is implicit
3. Only II is implicit
4. None of these
Ans. (4)
22. Statement: “We do not want you to see our product in newspaper, visit bur shop
to get a full view” an advertisement.
Assumptions: I. People generally decide to purchase any product after seeing the name
in the advertisement.
II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers.
III. People may come to see the product.
1. None is implicit
2. Only I and II are implicit
3. Only II and III are implicit
4. All are implicit
Ans. (3)
23. Statement: “Use Riya cold cream for fair complexion” — an advertisement.
Assumptions: I. People like to use cream for fair complexion.
II. People are easily fooled.
III. People respond to advertisements.
1. Only I is implicit
2. Only I and II are implicit
3. Only III implicit
4. Only I and III are implicit
Ans. (4)
24. Statement: “Smoking is injurious to health” - a warning printed on the cigarette
packets.
Assumptions: I. People read printed matter on a cigarette packet.
II. People take careful note of a warning.
III. Non-smoking promotes health.
I. Only I is implicit
2. Only I and II are implicit
3. Only III implicit
4. All are implicit
Ans. (1)
25. In a certain code, ‘247’ means ‘spread red carpet’; ‘236’ means ‘dust one carpet’ and ‘234’ means ‘one red carpet’. Which digit in that code means
‘dust’?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 5
4. 6
Ans. (4)
Friday, August 26, 2011
Friday, August 5, 2011
Free Online Practice paper Reasoning for BHEL Engineer Supervisor
Free Online Practice paper Reasoning for BHEL Engineer Supervisor
BHEL Engineer Supervisor model test paper Reasoning
Reasoning Solved objective questions with answers for BHEL Jobs
1. Pointing to a photograph, Anil said, “She is the daughter of my grand father’s only son.” How is Anil related to the girl in the photograph?
(a) Father
(b) Brother
(c) Cousin
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
2. Rajan is the brother of Sachin and Manik is the father of Rajan. Jagat is the brother of Priya and Priya is the daughter of Sachin. Who is the uncle of Jagat?
(a) Rajan
(b) Sachin
(c) Manik
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
Ans. (a)
3. A is the father of C and D is the son of B. E is the brother of A. If C is the sister of D, how is B related to E?
(a) Daughter
(b) Brother-in-law
(c) Husband
(d) Sister-in-law
(e) None of these
Ans. (d)
4. If (i) P + Q means P ‘is the husband of’ Q
(ii) P ÷ Q means P ‘is the sister of’ Q (iii) P x Q means P ‘is the son of’ Q, then which of the following shows that P is the daughter of Q?
(a) R x Q - P
(b) Q + R + P
(c) S x Q + R ÷ P
(d) P ÷ S x Q
(e) None of these
Ans. (d)
Directions (Questions 5 to 10): In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose the most appropriate sequence from amongst the alternatives provided below each question.
5. (a) Elephant
(b) Cat
(c) Mosquito
(d) Tiger
(e) Whale
(i) (a), (c), (e), (d), (b)
(ii) (b), (e), (a), (d), (c)
(iii) (c), (b), (d), (a), (e)
(iv) (e), (c), (a), (b), (d)
Ans. (iii)
6. (a) Protect
(b) Pressure
(c) Relief
(d) Rain
(e) Flood
(i) (b), (d), (c), (a), (e)
(ii) (b), (d), (e), (a), (c)
(iii) (b), (e), (d), (a), (c)
(iv) (c), (b), (d), (e), (a)
Ans. (ii)
7. (a) Punishment
(b) Prison
(c) Arrest
(d) Crime
(e) Jugement
(i) (e), (a), (b), (c), (d)
(ii) (d), (c), (e), (b), (a)
(iii) (d), (c), (e), (a), (b)
(iv) (b), (c), (a), (d), (e)
Ans. (iii)
8. (a) Rainbow
(b) Rain
(c) Sun
(d) Happy
(e) Child
(i) (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
(ii) (b), (c), (a), (e), (d)
(iii) (d), (b), (c), (e), (a)
(iv) (d), (e), (a), (b), (c)
Ans. (ii)
9. (a) Key
(b) Door
(c) Lock
(d) Room
(e) Switch on
(i) (e), (a), (b), (d), (c)
(ii) (d), (b), (a), (e), (c)
(iii) (a), (b), (c), (e), (d)
(iv) (a), (c), (b), (d), (e)
Ans. (iv)
10. (a) Windows
(b) Walls
(c) Floor
(d) Foundation
(e) Roof
(f) Room
(i) (d), (e), (c), (b), (a), (f)
(ii) (d), (c), (e), (f), (b), (a)
(iii) (d), (b), (a), (e), (c), (f)
(iv) (d), (a), (e), (f), (b), (c)
Ans. (iii)
11. A pen always has
(a) Tube
(b) Cap
(c) Holder
(d) Ink
(e) Nib
Ans. (e)
12. A book always has
(a) Chapters
(b) Pages
(c) Contents
(d) Pictures
(e) Illustrations
Ans. (b)
Directions (Questions 13 to 17): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i) P, Q, R, S, T and U are traveling in a bus.
(ii) There are two reporters, two technicians, one photographer and one writer in the group.
(iii) The photographer P is married to S who is a reporter.
(iv) The writer is married to Q who is of the same profession as that of U.
(v) There are two married couples and nobody in the group has same profession.
(vi) U is brother of R.
13. Which of the following is a pair of technicians?
(a) RS
(b) SU
(c) PT
(d) QU
Ans. (d)
14. Which of the following is a pair of reporters?
(a) PQ
(b) RT
(c) ST
(d) SU
Ans. (c)
15. How is R related to U?
(a) Brother
(b) Sister
(c) Uncle
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (d)
16. Which of the following pair is a couple?
(a) PQ
(b) QR
(c) QS
(d) PT
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following is a pair of husbands?
(a) PQ
(b) PR
(c) QS
(d) Can’t be determined
Ans. (d)
Fill the blanks to complete the series
18. 1, 3, 3, 6, 7, 9... 12, 21.
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
(e) 15
Ans. (d)
19. 0, 2, 3, 5, 8, 10, 15, 17, 24, 26,…..
(a) 35
(b) 32
(c) 30
(d) 28
(e) 25
Ans. (a)
20. 4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30,………
(a) 32
(b) 60
(c) 58
(d) 56
(e) 62
Ans. (b)
BHEL Engineer Supervisor model test paper Reasoning
Reasoning Solved objective questions with answers for BHEL Jobs
1. Pointing to a photograph, Anil said, “She is the daughter of my grand father’s only son.” How is Anil related to the girl in the photograph?
(a) Father
(b) Brother
(c) Cousin
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
2. Rajan is the brother of Sachin and Manik is the father of Rajan. Jagat is the brother of Priya and Priya is the daughter of Sachin. Who is the uncle of Jagat?
(a) Rajan
(b) Sachin
(c) Manik
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
Ans. (a)
3. A is the father of C and D is the son of B. E is the brother of A. If C is the sister of D, how is B related to E?
(a) Daughter
(b) Brother-in-law
(c) Husband
(d) Sister-in-law
(e) None of these
Ans. (d)
4. If (i) P + Q means P ‘is the husband of’ Q
(ii) P ÷ Q means P ‘is the sister of’ Q (iii) P x Q means P ‘is the son of’ Q, then which of the following shows that P is the daughter of Q?
(a) R x Q - P
(b) Q + R + P
(c) S x Q + R ÷ P
(d) P ÷ S x Q
(e) None of these
Ans. (d)
Directions (Questions 5 to 10): In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose the most appropriate sequence from amongst the alternatives provided below each question.
5. (a) Elephant
(b) Cat
(c) Mosquito
(d) Tiger
(e) Whale
(i) (a), (c), (e), (d), (b)
(ii) (b), (e), (a), (d), (c)
(iii) (c), (b), (d), (a), (e)
(iv) (e), (c), (a), (b), (d)
Ans. (iii)
6. (a) Protect
(b) Pressure
(c) Relief
(d) Rain
(e) Flood
(i) (b), (d), (c), (a), (e)
(ii) (b), (d), (e), (a), (c)
(iii) (b), (e), (d), (a), (c)
(iv) (c), (b), (d), (e), (a)
Ans. (ii)
7. (a) Punishment
(b) Prison
(c) Arrest
(d) Crime
(e) Jugement
(i) (e), (a), (b), (c), (d)
(ii) (d), (c), (e), (b), (a)
(iii) (d), (c), (e), (a), (b)
(iv) (b), (c), (a), (d), (e)
Ans. (iii)
8. (a) Rainbow
(b) Rain
(c) Sun
(d) Happy
(e) Child
(i) (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
(ii) (b), (c), (a), (e), (d)
(iii) (d), (b), (c), (e), (a)
(iv) (d), (e), (a), (b), (c)
Ans. (ii)
9. (a) Key
(b) Door
(c) Lock
(d) Room
(e) Switch on
(i) (e), (a), (b), (d), (c)
(ii) (d), (b), (a), (e), (c)
(iii) (a), (b), (c), (e), (d)
(iv) (a), (c), (b), (d), (e)
Ans. (iv)
10. (a) Windows
(b) Walls
(c) Floor
(d) Foundation
(e) Roof
(f) Room
(i) (d), (e), (c), (b), (a), (f)
(ii) (d), (c), (e), (f), (b), (a)
(iii) (d), (b), (a), (e), (c), (f)
(iv) (d), (a), (e), (f), (b), (c)
Ans. (iii)
11. A pen always has
(a) Tube
(b) Cap
(c) Holder
(d) Ink
(e) Nib
Ans. (e)
12. A book always has
(a) Chapters
(b) Pages
(c) Contents
(d) Pictures
(e) Illustrations
Ans. (b)
Directions (Questions 13 to 17): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i) P, Q, R, S, T and U are traveling in a bus.
(ii) There are two reporters, two technicians, one photographer and one writer in the group.
(iii) The photographer P is married to S who is a reporter.
(iv) The writer is married to Q who is of the same profession as that of U.
(v) There are two married couples and nobody in the group has same profession.
(vi) U is brother of R.
13. Which of the following is a pair of technicians?
(a) RS
(b) SU
(c) PT
(d) QU
Ans. (d)
14. Which of the following is a pair of reporters?
(a) PQ
(b) RT
(c) ST
(d) SU
Ans. (c)
15. How is R related to U?
(a) Brother
(b) Sister
(c) Uncle
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (d)
16. Which of the following pair is a couple?
(a) PQ
(b) QR
(c) QS
(d) PT
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following is a pair of husbands?
(a) PQ
(b) PR
(c) QS
(d) Can’t be determined
Ans. (d)
Fill the blanks to complete the series
18. 1, 3, 3, 6, 7, 9... 12, 21.
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
(e) 15
Ans. (d)
19. 0, 2, 3, 5, 8, 10, 15, 17, 24, 26,…..
(a) 35
(b) 32
(c) 30
(d) 28
(e) 25
Ans. (a)
20. 4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30,………
(a) 32
(b) 60
(c) 58
(d) 56
(e) 62
Ans. (b)
reasoning Sample Questions for AFCAT exam
reasoning Sample Questions for AFCAT exam
afcat papers Model test paper reasoning
Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) Reasoning Model Solved Questions
1. Pointing to a man, a1woman said: “His mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the woman related to the man?
(a) Mother
(b) Daughter
(c) Sister
(d) Grand Mother
(e) None of these
Ans. (a)
2. Pointing to a man in the photograph, Ashmita said, “His mother’s only daughter is my mother.” How is Ashmita related to that man?
(a) Nephew
(b) Sister
(c) Wife
(d) Niece
(e) Grand mother
Ans. (d)
3. If Kunal says, “John’s mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is Kunal related to John?
(a) Brother
(b) Father
(c) Grand Father
(d) Can’t be found
(e) None of these
Ans. (e)
Questions 4 to 6.
(i) A is the son of B
(ii) C, who is the sister of B has a son D and a daughter E
(iii) F is the maternal uncle of D.
4. How is A related to D?
(a) Cousin
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Brother
(e) None of these
Ans. (a)
5. How is E related to F?
(a) Sister
(b) Niece
(c) Niece
(d) Wife
(e) Mother
Ans. (c)
6. How many nephews does F have?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
Ans. (c)
7. How many numbers from 1 to 50 are there each of which is not only exactly divisible by 4 but also contain 4 as a digit in it?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 8
(e) 3
Ans. (a)
8. In a chess tournament each of the seven players will play every other player exactly once. How many matches will be played during the tournament?
(a) 12
(b) 21
(c) 14
(d) 13
(e) 18
Ans. (b)
9. A shepherd had 17 sheep. All but nine died. How many was he left with?
(a) 0
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 7
(e) 17
Ans. (c)
Directions (Questions 10 and 11): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
The sum of the income of A and B is more than of C and D together. The sum of the income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and D.
10. Whose income is the highest?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) Can’t say
Ans. (b)
11. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A earns more than B
(b) B earns more than D
(c) C earns more than D
(d) B earns more than C
(e) All are correct
Ans. (a)
Directions (Questions 12 to 16): In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose the most appropriate sequence from amongst the alternatives provided below each question.
12. (a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Universe
(c) Tirupathi
(d) World
(e) India
(i) (a), (e), (b), (c), (d)
(ii) (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
(iii) (c), (a), (e), (d), (b)
(iv) (e), (d), (b), (a), (c)
Ans. (iii)
13. (a) District
(b) Village
(c) State
(d) Town
(e) Country
(i) (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
(ii) (b), (c), (d), (a), (e)
(iii) (b), (d), (a), (c), (e)
(iv) (c), (b), (a), (d), (e)
Ans. (iii)
14. (a) Income
(b) Status
(c) Education
(d) Well-being
(e) Job
(i) (a), (c), (b), (e), (d)
(ii) (a), (b), (e), (c), (d)
(iii) (c), (a), (e), (b), (d)
(iv) (c), (e), (a), (b), (d)
Ans. (iv)
15. (a) Curd
(b) Grass
(c) Butter
(d) Milk
(e) Cow
(i) (e), (b), (d), (a), (c)
(ii) (e), (b), (c), (d), (a)
(iii) (d), (b), (e), (c), (a)
(iv) (b), (e), (d), (c), (a)
Ans. (ii)
16. (a) Child
(b) Job
(c) Marriage
(d) Infant
(e) Education
(i) (a), (c), (e), (b), (d)
(ii) (b), (d), (a), (c), (e)
(iii) (b), (d), (c), (a), (e)
(iv) (d), (a), (e), (b), (c)
Ans. (iv)
Directions(Q 17-18): Choose the best alternative as the answer.
2. A disease always has
(a) Cure
(b) Medicine
(c) Cause
(d) Germs
(e) Patient
Ans. (c)
3. A man has always
(a) Teeth
(b) Feet
(c) Eyes
(d) Hands
(e) Heart
Ans. (e)
Directions (Questions 19 to 23): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i) There is a group of five persons—A, B, C, D and E.
(ii) One of them is a horticulturist, one is a physicist, one is a journalist one is an industrialist and one is an advocate.
(iii) Three of them—A, C and advocate prefer tea to coffee and two of them—B and the journalist prefer coffee to tea.
(iv) The industrialist and D and A are friends to one another but two of these prefer coffee to tea.
(v) The horticulturist is C’s brother.
19. Who is a horticulturist?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans. (a)
20. Who is an industrialist?
(a) E
(b) C
(c) B
(d) D
(e) A
Ans. (c)
21. Which of the following groups includes a person who likes tea but is not an advocate?
(a) ACE
(b) DE
(c) BCE
(d) BD
(e) None of these
Ans. (e)
22. Who is a physicist?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) D
(d) C
(e) B
Ans. (d)
23. Which of the above statements is superfluous?
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (ii)
(d) (v)
(e)None
Ans. (e)
Directions (Q. 24-25): In the following questions which one is different from rest of the three?
24. (a) Advice
(b) Counsel
(c) Direct
(d) Suggest
Ans. (c)
25. (a) Mansion
(b) Villa
(c) Garage
(d) Apartment
Ans. (a)
afcat papers Model test paper reasoning
Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) Reasoning Model Solved Questions
1. Pointing to a man, a1woman said: “His mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the woman related to the man?
(a) Mother
(b) Daughter
(c) Sister
(d) Grand Mother
(e) None of these
Ans. (a)
2. Pointing to a man in the photograph, Ashmita said, “His mother’s only daughter is my mother.” How is Ashmita related to that man?
(a) Nephew
(b) Sister
(c) Wife
(d) Niece
(e) Grand mother
Ans. (d)
3. If Kunal says, “John’s mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is Kunal related to John?
(a) Brother
(b) Father
(c) Grand Father
(d) Can’t be found
(e) None of these
Ans. (e)
Questions 4 to 6.
(i) A is the son of B
(ii) C, who is the sister of B has a son D and a daughter E
(iii) F is the maternal uncle of D.
4. How is A related to D?
(a) Cousin
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Brother
(e) None of these
Ans. (a)
5. How is E related to F?
(a) Sister
(b) Niece
(c) Niece
(d) Wife
(e) Mother
Ans. (c)
6. How many nephews does F have?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
Ans. (c)
7. How many numbers from 1 to 50 are there each of which is not only exactly divisible by 4 but also contain 4 as a digit in it?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 8
(e) 3
Ans. (a)
8. In a chess tournament each of the seven players will play every other player exactly once. How many matches will be played during the tournament?
(a) 12
(b) 21
(c) 14
(d) 13
(e) 18
Ans. (b)
9. A shepherd had 17 sheep. All but nine died. How many was he left with?
(a) 0
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 7
(e) 17
Ans. (c)
Directions (Questions 10 and 11): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
The sum of the income of A and B is more than of C and D together. The sum of the income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and D.
10. Whose income is the highest?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) Can’t say
Ans. (b)
11. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A earns more than B
(b) B earns more than D
(c) C earns more than D
(d) B earns more than C
(e) All are correct
Ans. (a)
Directions (Questions 12 to 16): In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose the most appropriate sequence from amongst the alternatives provided below each question.
12. (a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Universe
(c) Tirupathi
(d) World
(e) India
(i) (a), (e), (b), (c), (d)
(ii) (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)
(iii) (c), (a), (e), (d), (b)
(iv) (e), (d), (b), (a), (c)
Ans. (iii)
13. (a) District
(b) Village
(c) State
(d) Town
(e) Country
(i) (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)
(ii) (b), (c), (d), (a), (e)
(iii) (b), (d), (a), (c), (e)
(iv) (c), (b), (a), (d), (e)
Ans. (iii)
14. (a) Income
(b) Status
(c) Education
(d) Well-being
(e) Job
(i) (a), (c), (b), (e), (d)
(ii) (a), (b), (e), (c), (d)
(iii) (c), (a), (e), (b), (d)
(iv) (c), (e), (a), (b), (d)
Ans. (iv)
15. (a) Curd
(b) Grass
(c) Butter
(d) Milk
(e) Cow
(i) (e), (b), (d), (a), (c)
(ii) (e), (b), (c), (d), (a)
(iii) (d), (b), (e), (c), (a)
(iv) (b), (e), (d), (c), (a)
Ans. (ii)
16. (a) Child
(b) Job
(c) Marriage
(d) Infant
(e) Education
(i) (a), (c), (e), (b), (d)
(ii) (b), (d), (a), (c), (e)
(iii) (b), (d), (c), (a), (e)
(iv) (d), (a), (e), (b), (c)
Ans. (iv)
Directions(Q 17-18): Choose the best alternative as the answer.
2. A disease always has
(a) Cure
(b) Medicine
(c) Cause
(d) Germs
(e) Patient
Ans. (c)
3. A man has always
(a) Teeth
(b) Feet
(c) Eyes
(d) Hands
(e) Heart
Ans. (e)
Directions (Questions 19 to 23): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i) There is a group of five persons—A, B, C, D and E.
(ii) One of them is a horticulturist, one is a physicist, one is a journalist one is an industrialist and one is an advocate.
(iii) Three of them—A, C and advocate prefer tea to coffee and two of them—B and the journalist prefer coffee to tea.
(iv) The industrialist and D and A are friends to one another but two of these prefer coffee to tea.
(v) The horticulturist is C’s brother.
19. Who is a horticulturist?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans. (a)
20. Who is an industrialist?
(a) E
(b) C
(c) B
(d) D
(e) A
Ans. (c)
21. Which of the following groups includes a person who likes tea but is not an advocate?
(a) ACE
(b) DE
(c) BCE
(d) BD
(e) None of these
Ans. (e)
22. Who is a physicist?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) D
(d) C
(e) B
Ans. (d)
23. Which of the above statements is superfluous?
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (ii)
(d) (v)
(e)None
Ans. (e)
Directions (Q. 24-25): In the following questions which one is different from rest of the three?
24. (a) Advice
(b) Counsel
(c) Direct
(d) Suggest
Ans. (c)
25. (a) Mansion
(b) Villa
(c) Garage
(d) Apartment
Ans. (a)
Thursday, August 4, 2011
Reasoning Solved objective test for AFCAT
Reasoning Solved objective test for AFCAT
AFCAT Reasoning Solved Sample Question Paper
afcat papers Model test paper reasoning Practice test
1. Moon: Satellite: Earth:?
(a) Sun
(b) Planet
(c) Solar system
(d) Asteroid
Ans. (b)
Choose one number which is similar to the numbers in the given set of three numbers.
2. Given set: 363, 489, 579
(a) 562
(b) 471
(c) 382
(d) 281
Ans. (b)
3. Given set: 992, 733, 845
(a) 114
(b) 326
(c) 425
(d) 947
Ans. (c)
4. Given set: 282, 354, 444
(a) 453
(b) 417
(c) 336
(d) 255
Ans. (a)
5. Given set: 134, 246, 358
(a) 372
(b) 460
(c) 572
(d) 684
Ans. (b)
6. Given set: 235, 347, 527
(a) 935
(b) 436
(c) 835
(d) 909
(d)
7. Mahesh walks 20 metres towards North. He then turns left and walks 40 metres. He again turns left and walks 20 metres. Further, he moves 20 metres after turning to the right. How far is he from his original position?
(a) 20m
(b) 30m
(c) 50m
(d) 60m
(e) 75m
Ans. (d)
8. A rat runs 20 m towards East and turns to right, runs 10 m and turns to right, runs 9 and again turns to left, runs 5 m and turns to left, runs 12 m and finally turns to left and runs 6 m. Now which direction is the rat facing?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) North-east
(e) South
Ans. (c)
9. A watch reads 9:00 o’clock and I found that the hour hand is pointing South-east. In what direction, the minute hand of my watch is at that time?
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) North-east
(e) South-west
Ans. (e)
10. One evening before sunset two friends Sumit and Mohit were talking to each other face to face. If Mohit’s shadow was exactly to his right side, which direction was nmit facing?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) West
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
11. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points towards North-east. In which direction does its hour hand point at 1:30 p.m?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
(e) North-west
Ans. (c)
12. While facing East, Rohit turns to his left and walks 10 meters, then he turns left and walks 10 meters. Now he turns 450 towards his right and goes straight to cover 25 meters. In which direction is he from his starting point?
(a) North-east
(b) North-west
(c) South-west
(d) South-east
(e) East
Ans. (b)
Complete the series.
13. 8, 9, 11, 14, 18, 23…
(a) 28
(b) 30
(c) 32
(d) 33
(e) 29
Ans. (e)
14. 54, 165, 276, 387,.
(a) 498
(b) 496
(c) 497
(d) 501
(e) 509
Ans. (a)
15. 11, 23, 48, 99, 202...
(a) 409
(b) 408
(c) 407
(d) 406
(e) 405
Ans. (a)
16. 5, 7, 10, 15, 22,……..
(a) 31
(b) 32
(c) 38
(d) 34
(e) 35
Ans. (e)
17. 2, 10, 26, 50, 82,…….
(a) 110
(b) 112
(c) 120
(d) 122
(e) 126
Ans. (d)
18. 7, 15, 29, 59, 117,…….
(a) 230
(b) 231
(c) 233
(d) 234
(e) 235
Ans. (e)
19. 10, 19, 40, 77, 158,…..
(a) 311
(b) 307
(c) 301
(d) 299
(e) 297
Ans. (a)
20. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210,….
(a) 240
(b) 290
(c) 336
(d) 504
(e) None of these
Ans. (d)
AFCAT Reasoning Solved Sample Question Paper
afcat papers Model test paper reasoning Practice test
1. Moon: Satellite: Earth:?
(a) Sun
(b) Planet
(c) Solar system
(d) Asteroid
Ans. (b)
Choose one number which is similar to the numbers in the given set of three numbers.
2. Given set: 363, 489, 579
(a) 562
(b) 471
(c) 382
(d) 281
Ans. (b)
3. Given set: 992, 733, 845
(a) 114
(b) 326
(c) 425
(d) 947
Ans. (c)
4. Given set: 282, 354, 444
(a) 453
(b) 417
(c) 336
(d) 255
Ans. (a)
5. Given set: 134, 246, 358
(a) 372
(b) 460
(c) 572
(d) 684
Ans. (b)
6. Given set: 235, 347, 527
(a) 935
(b) 436
(c) 835
(d) 909
(d)
7. Mahesh walks 20 metres towards North. He then turns left and walks 40 metres. He again turns left and walks 20 metres. Further, he moves 20 metres after turning to the right. How far is he from his original position?
(a) 20m
(b) 30m
(c) 50m
(d) 60m
(e) 75m
Ans. (d)
8. A rat runs 20 m towards East and turns to right, runs 10 m and turns to right, runs 9 and again turns to left, runs 5 m and turns to left, runs 12 m and finally turns to left and runs 6 m. Now which direction is the rat facing?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) North-east
(e) South
Ans. (c)
9. A watch reads 9:00 o’clock and I found that the hour hand is pointing South-east. In what direction, the minute hand of my watch is at that time?
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) North-east
(e) South-west
Ans. (e)
10. One evening before sunset two friends Sumit and Mohit were talking to each other face to face. If Mohit’s shadow was exactly to his right side, which direction was nmit facing?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) West
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
11. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points towards North-east. In which direction does its hour hand point at 1:30 p.m?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
(e) North-west
Ans. (c)
12. While facing East, Rohit turns to his left and walks 10 meters, then he turns left and walks 10 meters. Now he turns 450 towards his right and goes straight to cover 25 meters. In which direction is he from his starting point?
(a) North-east
(b) North-west
(c) South-west
(d) South-east
(e) East
Ans. (b)
Complete the series.
13. 8, 9, 11, 14, 18, 23…
(a) 28
(b) 30
(c) 32
(d) 33
(e) 29
Ans. (e)
14. 54, 165, 276, 387,.
(a) 498
(b) 496
(c) 497
(d) 501
(e) 509
Ans. (a)
15. 11, 23, 48, 99, 202...
(a) 409
(b) 408
(c) 407
(d) 406
(e) 405
Ans. (a)
16. 5, 7, 10, 15, 22,……..
(a) 31
(b) 32
(c) 38
(d) 34
(e) 35
Ans. (e)
17. 2, 10, 26, 50, 82,…….
(a) 110
(b) 112
(c) 120
(d) 122
(e) 126
Ans. (d)
18. 7, 15, 29, 59, 117,…….
(a) 230
(b) 231
(c) 233
(d) 234
(e) 235
Ans. (e)
19. 10, 19, 40, 77, 158,…..
(a) 311
(b) 307
(c) 301
(d) 299
(e) 297
Ans. (a)
20. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210,….
(a) 240
(b) 290
(c) 336
(d) 504
(e) None of these
Ans. (d)
Practice paper For SSC SI And ASI jobs Exam General Intelligence and Reasoning
Practice paper For SSC SI And ASI jobs Exam General Intelligence and Reasoning
SSC Sub inspector /ASI Practice Paper
SSC inspector, SI, intelligence officers sample paper.
Complete the series.
1. 13, 24, 46, 90, 178
(a) 354
(b) 266
(c) 364
(d) 344
(e) 314
Ans. (a)
2. 11,12,20,47
(a) 91
(b) 101
(c) 111
(d) 121
(e) 124
Ans. (c)
3. 23, 48, 99, 203, 413,
(a) 927
(b) 837
(c) 937
(d) 437
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
4. 2, 12, 30, 56, 90,
(a) 110
(b) 121
(c) 132
(d) 143
(e) 156
Ans. (c)
5. 98, 72, 14,
(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 4
(e) 2
Ans. (d)
6. Suresh walks 20 meters North. Then he turns right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Then he gains turns left and walks 15 m. In which directions and how many meters away is he from his original position?
(a) 15 m; West
(b) 30 m; East
(c) 30 m; West
(d) 45 m; East
(e) 30 m; South
Ans. (d)
7. From his house, Lokesh went 15 kms to the North. Then he turned West and covered 10 kms. Then, he turned South and covered 5 kms. Finally turning to East, he covered 10kms. In which direction is he from his house?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) South
(e) North-east
Ans. (c)
8. Ankit, Bansi, Rohan and Sohan are friends. They play cards. Ankit and Bansi become partners. Sohan faces North. If Ankit faces towards West, then who faces towards South?
(a) Bansi
(b) Rohan
(c) Sohan
(d) Data is inadequate
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
9. After walking 6 kms, I turned right and covered a distance of 2 kms, then turned left and covered a distance of 10 kms. In the end, I was moving towards the North. From which direction did I start my journey?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
(e) South-east
Ans. (b)
10. In a certain code language ‘526’ means ‘sky is blue’; ‘24’ means ‘blue colour’ and ‘436’ means ‘colour is fun’. Which of the following digit stands for ‘fun’?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Ans. (c)
11. In a certain code language, ‘3a, 2b, 7c’ means ‘Truth is Eternal’; ‘7c, 9a, 8b, 3a’ means ‘Enmity is not Eternal’ and ‘9a, 4d, 2b, 8b’ means ‘Truth does not perish’. Which of the following means ‘Enmity’ in that language?
(a) 3a
(b) 7c
(c) 8b
(d) 9a
Ans. (c)
12. If ‘tee see pee’ means ‘Drink fruit juice’; ‘see kee lee’ means ‘Juice is sweet’ and ‘lee ree mee’ means ‘He is intelligent’, which word in that language means ‘sweet’?
(a) see
(b) kee
(c) lee
(d) pee
Ans. (b)
13. If rat is called dog, dog is called mangoose, mangoose is called lion, lion is called snake and snake is called an elephant, which is reared as pet?
(a) Rat
(b) Dog
(c) Mongoose
(d) Lion
Ans. (c)
14. If PAINT is coded as 74128 and EXCEL is coded as 93596, then how would you decode
ACCEPT?
(a) 455978
(b) 547978
(c) 554978
(d) 735961
Ans. (a)
15. If PALAM could be given the code number 43, what code number can be given to SANTACRUZ?
(a) 75
(b) 85
(c) 120
(d) 123
Ans. (d)
16. If in a certain language CARROM is coded as BZQQNL, which word will be coded as HOUSE?
(a) IPVTF
(b) GNTRD
(c) INVRF
(d) GPTID
Ans. (a)
17. If in a certain language, POPULAR is coded as QPQVMBS, which word would be coded
as GBNPVT
(a) FAMOSU
(b) FAMOUS
(c) FASOUM
(d) FOSAUM
Ans. (b)
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
18. ACE : FHJ : OQS:?
(a) PRT
(b) RTU
(c)TVX
(d) UWY
Ans. (c)
19. ESIK: FILO :: FHJL:?
(a) GJMP
(b) GMJP
(c) JGMP
(d) JGPM
Ans. (a)
Choose the set of numbers from the four alternatives which is similar to the given set.
20. Given set: (6, 13, 22)
(a) (6, 13, 27)
(b) (10, 16, 28)
(c) (11, 18, 27)
(d) (13, 19, 27)
Ans. (c)
21. Given set: (9, 15, 21)
(a) (10, 14, 16)
(b) (7, 21, 28)
(c) (5, 10, 25)
(d) (4, 8, 12)
Ans. (d)
choose a word from the given alternatives that belongs to the same group of three related words.
22. Violet: Orange : Yellow :
(a) Purple
(b) Blue
(c) White
(d) Pink
Ans. (b)
23. Basic : Pascal: Fortran
(a) Cyclotrone
(b) Computer
(c) Cobol
(d)Bhopal
Ans. (c)
24. In a certain code language,
(A) ‘pit na som’ means ‘bring me water’;
(B) ‘na jo tod’ means ‘water is life’;
(C) ‘jo un kot’ means ‘Life and death’.
Which of the following represents ‘is’ in that language?
(a) jo
(b) na
(c) tod
(d) lin
Ans. (c)
25. In a certain code language, ‘324’ means ‘Light is bright’, ‘629’ means ‘Girl is beautiful’ and ‘4758’ means ‘I prefer bright cloths’. Which digit means ‘Light’ in that language?
(a) 3
(b) 2
(d) 7
(c) 4
Ans. (a)
SSC Sub inspector /ASI Practice Paper
SSC inspector, SI, intelligence officers sample paper.
Complete the series.
1. 13, 24, 46, 90, 178
(a) 354
(b) 266
(c) 364
(d) 344
(e) 314
Ans. (a)
2. 11,12,20,47
(a) 91
(b) 101
(c) 111
(d) 121
(e) 124
Ans. (c)
3. 23, 48, 99, 203, 413,
(a) 927
(b) 837
(c) 937
(d) 437
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
4. 2, 12, 30, 56, 90,
(a) 110
(b) 121
(c) 132
(d) 143
(e) 156
Ans. (c)
5. 98, 72, 14,
(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 4
(e) 2
Ans. (d)
6. Suresh walks 20 meters North. Then he turns right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Then he gains turns left and walks 15 m. In which directions and how many meters away is he from his original position?
(a) 15 m; West
(b) 30 m; East
(c) 30 m; West
(d) 45 m; East
(e) 30 m; South
Ans. (d)
7. From his house, Lokesh went 15 kms to the North. Then he turned West and covered 10 kms. Then, he turned South and covered 5 kms. Finally turning to East, he covered 10kms. In which direction is he from his house?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) South
(e) North-east
Ans. (c)
8. Ankit, Bansi, Rohan and Sohan are friends. They play cards. Ankit and Bansi become partners. Sohan faces North. If Ankit faces towards West, then who faces towards South?
(a) Bansi
(b) Rohan
(c) Sohan
(d) Data is inadequate
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
9. After walking 6 kms, I turned right and covered a distance of 2 kms, then turned left and covered a distance of 10 kms. In the end, I was moving towards the North. From which direction did I start my journey?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
(e) South-east
Ans. (b)
10. In a certain code language ‘526’ means ‘sky is blue’; ‘24’ means ‘blue colour’ and ‘436’ means ‘colour is fun’. Which of the following digit stands for ‘fun’?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Ans. (c)
11. In a certain code language, ‘3a, 2b, 7c’ means ‘Truth is Eternal’; ‘7c, 9a, 8b, 3a’ means ‘Enmity is not Eternal’ and ‘9a, 4d, 2b, 8b’ means ‘Truth does not perish’. Which of the following means ‘Enmity’ in that language?
(a) 3a
(b) 7c
(c) 8b
(d) 9a
Ans. (c)
12. If ‘tee see pee’ means ‘Drink fruit juice’; ‘see kee lee’ means ‘Juice is sweet’ and ‘lee ree mee’ means ‘He is intelligent’, which word in that language means ‘sweet’?
(a) see
(b) kee
(c) lee
(d) pee
Ans. (b)
13. If rat is called dog, dog is called mangoose, mangoose is called lion, lion is called snake and snake is called an elephant, which is reared as pet?
(a) Rat
(b) Dog
(c) Mongoose
(d) Lion
Ans. (c)
14. If PAINT is coded as 74128 and EXCEL is coded as 93596, then how would you decode
ACCEPT?
(a) 455978
(b) 547978
(c) 554978
(d) 735961
Ans. (a)
15. If PALAM could be given the code number 43, what code number can be given to SANTACRUZ?
(a) 75
(b) 85
(c) 120
(d) 123
Ans. (d)
16. If in a certain language CARROM is coded as BZQQNL, which word will be coded as HOUSE?
(a) IPVTF
(b) GNTRD
(c) INVRF
(d) GPTID
Ans. (a)
17. If in a certain language, POPULAR is coded as QPQVMBS, which word would be coded
as GBNPVT
(a) FAMOSU
(b) FAMOUS
(c) FASOUM
(d) FOSAUM
Ans. (b)
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
18. ACE : FHJ : OQS:?
(a) PRT
(b) RTU
(c)TVX
(d) UWY
Ans. (c)
19. ESIK: FILO :: FHJL:?
(a) GJMP
(b) GMJP
(c) JGMP
(d) JGPM
Ans. (a)
Choose the set of numbers from the four alternatives which is similar to the given set.
20. Given set: (6, 13, 22)
(a) (6, 13, 27)
(b) (10, 16, 28)
(c) (11, 18, 27)
(d) (13, 19, 27)
Ans. (c)
21. Given set: (9, 15, 21)
(a) (10, 14, 16)
(b) (7, 21, 28)
(c) (5, 10, 25)
(d) (4, 8, 12)
Ans. (d)
choose a word from the given alternatives that belongs to the same group of three related words.
22. Violet: Orange : Yellow :
(a) Purple
(b) Blue
(c) White
(d) Pink
Ans. (b)
23. Basic : Pascal: Fortran
(a) Cyclotrone
(b) Computer
(c) Cobol
(d)Bhopal
Ans. (c)
24. In a certain code language,
(A) ‘pit na som’ means ‘bring me water’;
(B) ‘na jo tod’ means ‘water is life’;
(C) ‘jo un kot’ means ‘Life and death’.
Which of the following represents ‘is’ in that language?
(a) jo
(b) na
(c) tod
(d) lin
Ans. (c)
25. In a certain code language, ‘324’ means ‘Light is bright’, ‘629’ means ‘Girl is beautiful’ and ‘4758’ means ‘I prefer bright cloths’. Which digit means ‘Light’ in that language?
(a) 3
(b) 2
(d) 7
(c) 4
Ans. (a)
Reasoning Objective Questions For BHEL Engineers Jobs exam Prepare For BHEL
Reasoning Objective Questions For BHEL Engineers Jobs exam
BHEL Engineer Trainee Exam preperation test
BHEL Engineer Trainees Sample Questions reasoning
Prepare For BHEL
1. If 3 + 2 = 7, 4 + 3 = 13, then 6 + 5 = ?
(a) 17
(b) 18
(c) 15
(d) 16
(e) 20
Ans. (d)
Directions: In each of the following questions, a group of letters is given which are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Below are given four alternatives containing combinations of these numbers. Select that combination of numbers so that letters arranged accordingly form a meaningful word.
2. T L P N A E
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 3, 2, 5, 4, 6, 1
(b) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1, 6
(c) 4, 5, 3, 6, 2, 1
(d) 4, 6, 1, 3, 5, 2
Ans. (a)
3. R M N B U E
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 2, 6, 3, 4, 1, 5
(b) 4, 6, 3, 2, 1, 5
(c) 3, 5, 2, 4, 6, 1
(d) 1, 5, 4, 2, 6, 3
Ans. (c)
4. E H R A S P
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 5, 2, 4, 6, 1, 3
(b) 6, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
(c) 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5
(d) 3, 4, 2, 1, 6, 5
Ans. (b)
5. E O C D L I
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 3, 2, 5, 4, 6, 1
(b) 4, 2, 3, 5, 6, 1
(c) 3, 2, 4, 5, 6, 1
(d) 4, 2, 3, 6, 5, 1
Ans. (d)
6. R T E O D P
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 1, 3, 5, 6, 4, 2
(b) 2, 3, 1, 6, 4, 5
(c) 5, 3, 6, 4, 1, 2
(d) 6, 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
Ans. (c)
Directions: Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
7. 1. Select
2. Seldom
3. Send
4. Selfish
5. Seller
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
(b) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
(d) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
(c) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
Ans. (c)
8. 1. Credential
2. Creed
3. Crease
4. Cremate
5. Credible
(a) 1, 2 , 3, 4, 5
(b) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2
(c) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
Ans. (d)
9. 1. Brook
2. Bandit
3. Boisterous
4. Baffle
5. Bright
(a) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1
(b) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
(c) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
Ans. (d)
Directions : Find which one word cannot be made from the letters of the given word.
10. CARPENTER
(a) NECTAR
(b) CARPET
(c) PAINTER
(d) REPENT
Ans. (d)
11. CHOREOGRAPHY
(a) OGRE
(b) PHOTOGRAPHY
(c) GRAPH
(d) GEOGRAPHY
Ans. (b)
Directions: Choose one word which can be formed from the letters of the word given.
12. CHOCOLATE
(a) TELL
(b) HEALTH
(c) LATE
(d) COOLER
Ans. (c)
13. How many independent words can ‘HEARTLESS’ be divided into without
changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Ans. (b)
14. From the word ‘LAPROSCOPY’, how many independent words can be made without
changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans. (b)
15. Which letter in the word ‘SELFRIGHTEOUSNESS’ does not change its position when the letters are reversed?
(a) E
(b) G
(c) H
(d) T
Ans. (d)
16. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘LANGUISH’ which have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?
(a) Nil
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
Ans. (c)
17. How many pairs of letters in the word ‘BRIGHTER’ have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans. (c)
18. lf the positions of the first and sixth letters of the word ‘BENEFICIAL’ are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and seventh letters are interchanged and so on, which letter will be third from right end after rearrangement?
(a) C
(b) E
(c) F
(d) N
Ans. (d)
19. If the last four letters of’ the word ‘CONCENTRATION’ are written in reverse order followed by next two in the reverse order and next three in the reverse order and then followed by the first four in the reverse order, counting from the end which letter would be eighth in the new arrangement?
(a) N
(b) T
(c) E
(d) R
Ans. (c)
20. Select from the given diagrams, the one that illustrates the relationship among the given three classes: Judge, Thief Criminal.
Ans. (b)
BHEL Engineer Trainee Exam preperation test
BHEL Engineer Trainees Sample Questions reasoning
Prepare For BHEL
1. If 3 + 2 = 7, 4 + 3 = 13, then 6 + 5 = ?
(a) 17
(b) 18
(c) 15
(d) 16
(e) 20
Ans. (d)
Directions: In each of the following questions, a group of letters is given which are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Below are given four alternatives containing combinations of these numbers. Select that combination of numbers so that letters arranged accordingly form a meaningful word.
2. T L P N A E
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 3, 2, 5, 4, 6, 1
(b) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1, 6
(c) 4, 5, 3, 6, 2, 1
(d) 4, 6, 1, 3, 5, 2
Ans. (a)
3. R M N B U E
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 2, 6, 3, 4, 1, 5
(b) 4, 6, 3, 2, 1, 5
(c) 3, 5, 2, 4, 6, 1
(d) 1, 5, 4, 2, 6, 3
Ans. (c)
4. E H R A S P
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 5, 2, 4, 6, 1, 3
(b) 6, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
(c) 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5
(d) 3, 4, 2, 1, 6, 5
Ans. (b)
5. E O C D L I
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 3, 2, 5, 4, 6, 1
(b) 4, 2, 3, 5, 6, 1
(c) 3, 2, 4, 5, 6, 1
(d) 4, 2, 3, 6, 5, 1
Ans. (d)
6. R T E O D P
1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) 1, 3, 5, 6, 4, 2
(b) 2, 3, 1, 6, 4, 5
(c) 5, 3, 6, 4, 1, 2
(d) 6, 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
Ans. (c)
Directions: Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
7. 1. Select
2. Seldom
3. Send
4. Selfish
5. Seller
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
(b) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
(d) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
(c) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
Ans. (c)
8. 1. Credential
2. Creed
3. Crease
4. Cremate
5. Credible
(a) 1, 2 , 3, 4, 5
(b) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2
(c) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
Ans. (d)
9. 1. Brook
2. Bandit
3. Boisterous
4. Baffle
5. Bright
(a) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1
(b) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
(c) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
Ans. (d)
Directions : Find which one word cannot be made from the letters of the given word.
10. CARPENTER
(a) NECTAR
(b) CARPET
(c) PAINTER
(d) REPENT
Ans. (d)
11. CHOREOGRAPHY
(a) OGRE
(b) PHOTOGRAPHY
(c) GRAPH
(d) GEOGRAPHY
Ans. (b)
Directions: Choose one word which can be formed from the letters of the word given.
12. CHOCOLATE
(a) TELL
(b) HEALTH
(c) LATE
(d) COOLER
Ans. (c)
13. How many independent words can ‘HEARTLESS’ be divided into without
changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Ans. (b)
14. From the word ‘LAPROSCOPY’, how many independent words can be made without
changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans. (b)
15. Which letter in the word ‘SELFRIGHTEOUSNESS’ does not change its position when the letters are reversed?
(a) E
(b) G
(c) H
(d) T
Ans. (d)
16. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘LANGUISH’ which have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?
(a) Nil
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
Ans. (c)
17. How many pairs of letters in the word ‘BRIGHTER’ have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans. (c)
18. lf the positions of the first and sixth letters of the word ‘BENEFICIAL’ are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and seventh letters are interchanged and so on, which letter will be third from right end after rearrangement?
(a) C
(b) E
(c) F
(d) N
Ans. (d)
19. If the last four letters of’ the word ‘CONCENTRATION’ are written in reverse order followed by next two in the reverse order and next three in the reverse order and then followed by the first four in the reverse order, counting from the end which letter would be eighth in the new arrangement?
(a) N
(b) T
(c) E
(d) R
Ans. (c)
20. Select from the given diagrams, the one that illustrates the relationship among the given three classes: Judge, Thief Criminal.
Ans. (b)
Friday, July 15, 2011
Verbal Reasoning Dissimilar in Group Questions solved paper
Verbal Reasoning Dissimilar in Group Questions solved paper
Fully solved Verbal Reasoning questions and answers
Verbal Reasoning Papers for For UPSC, Bank PO, CLERICAL
1. WORD CLASSIFICATION
Directions: In the following questions 1—11, four of the following five are alike a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1. (a) Mist
(b) Cloud
(c) Rain
(d) Vapour
(e) Fog
Ans. (c)
2. (a) He-goat
(b) He-buffalo
(c) Cow
(d) Bull
(e) Horse
Ans. (c)
3. (a) Butter
(b) Curd
(c) Ice-cream
(d) Cheese
(e) Juice
Ans. (e)
4. (a) Cave
(b) Shanty
(c) Hut
(d) Nest
(e) Palace
Ans. (a)
5. (a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Yellow
(d) Orange
(e) Pink
Ans. (e)
6. (a) Court
(b) Rink
(c) Stadium
(d) Field
(e) Farm
Ans. (e)
7. (a) Haryana
(b) Gujarat
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamilnadu
(e) Maharashtra
Ans. (a)
8. (a) Apple
(b) Orange
(c)Carrot
(d) Guava
(e) Tomato
Ans. (b)
9. (a) Carbon
(b) Copper
(c) Silver
(d) Gold
(e) Platinum
Ans. (a)
10. (a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Australia
(d) Africa
(e) Canada
Ans. (c)
11. (a) Actor
(b) Dancer
(c) Musician
(d) Poet
(e) Artist
Ans. (e)
II. ALPHABET CLASSIFICATION
Note: Students may take the help of the alphabets/ Numbers.
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Directions: In each of the following questions, five groups of letters are given. Four of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
12. (a) JOT
(b) OUT
(c) FED
(d) DIN
(e) DOG
Ans. (b)
13. (a) DE
(b) PQ
(c) TU
(d) MO
(e) FG
Ans. (d)
14. (a) VT
(b) MO
(c) PR
(d) DF
(e) FG
Ans. (e)
15. (a) BD
(b) MP
(c) NQ
(d) HK
(e) TW
Ans. (a)
16. (a) HGF
(b) XWV
(c) NML
(d) OPQ
(e) UTS
Ans. (d)
17. (a) XW
(b) FG
(c) ML
(d) P0
(e) TS
Ans. (b)
18. (a) BCD
(b) NPR
(c) KLM
(d) RQP
(e) HGF
Ans. (b)
19. (a) KP
(b) MN
(c) HR
(d) GT
(e) EV
Ans. (c)
20. (a) BEH
(b) CFI
(c) DGJ
(d) EHL
(e) FIL
Ans. (d)
21. (a) RTW
(b) QOM
(c) 1KG
(d) 1KM
(e) BDF
Ans. (a)
22. (a) VWY
(b) QRT
(c) LMO
(d) JKL
(e) DEG
Ans. (d)
23. (a) PRT
(b) MOQ
(c) GEC
(d) TVX
(e) SUW
Ans. (c)
24. (a) EBA
(b) XUT
(c) TQP
(d) JFE
(e) YVU
Ans. (d)
25. (a) BHE
(b) DJG
(c) SYV
(d) JPM
(e) PUS
Ans. (e)
Fully solved Verbal Reasoning questions and answers
Verbal Reasoning Papers for For UPSC, Bank PO, CLERICAL
1. WORD CLASSIFICATION
Directions: In the following questions 1—11, four of the following five are alike a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1. (a) Mist
(b) Cloud
(c) Rain
(d) Vapour
(e) Fog
Ans. (c)
2. (a) He-goat
(b) He-buffalo
(c) Cow
(d) Bull
(e) Horse
Ans. (c)
3. (a) Butter
(b) Curd
(c) Ice-cream
(d) Cheese
(e) Juice
Ans. (e)
4. (a) Cave
(b) Shanty
(c) Hut
(d) Nest
(e) Palace
Ans. (a)
5. (a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Yellow
(d) Orange
(e) Pink
Ans. (e)
6. (a) Court
(b) Rink
(c) Stadium
(d) Field
(e) Farm
Ans. (e)
7. (a) Haryana
(b) Gujarat
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamilnadu
(e) Maharashtra
Ans. (a)
8. (a) Apple
(b) Orange
(c)Carrot
(d) Guava
(e) Tomato
Ans. (b)
9. (a) Carbon
(b) Copper
(c) Silver
(d) Gold
(e) Platinum
Ans. (a)
10. (a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Australia
(d) Africa
(e) Canada
Ans. (c)
11. (a) Actor
(b) Dancer
(c) Musician
(d) Poet
(e) Artist
Ans. (e)
II. ALPHABET CLASSIFICATION
Note: Students may take the help of the alphabets/ Numbers.
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Directions: In each of the following questions, five groups of letters are given. Four of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
12. (a) JOT
(b) OUT
(c) FED
(d) DIN
(e) DOG
Ans. (b)
13. (a) DE
(b) PQ
(c) TU
(d) MO
(e) FG
Ans. (d)
14. (a) VT
(b) MO
(c) PR
(d) DF
(e) FG
Ans. (e)
15. (a) BD
(b) MP
(c) NQ
(d) HK
(e) TW
Ans. (a)
16. (a) HGF
(b) XWV
(c) NML
(d) OPQ
(e) UTS
Ans. (d)
17. (a) XW
(b) FG
(c) ML
(d) P0
(e) TS
Ans. (b)
18. (a) BCD
(b) NPR
(c) KLM
(d) RQP
(e) HGF
Ans. (b)
19. (a) KP
(b) MN
(c) HR
(d) GT
(e) EV
Ans. (c)
20. (a) BEH
(b) CFI
(c) DGJ
(d) EHL
(e) FIL
Ans. (d)
21. (a) RTW
(b) QOM
(c) 1KG
(d) 1KM
(e) BDF
Ans. (a)
22. (a) VWY
(b) QRT
(c) LMO
(d) JKL
(e) DEG
Ans. (d)
23. (a) PRT
(b) MOQ
(c) GEC
(d) TVX
(e) SUW
Ans. (c)
24. (a) EBA
(b) XUT
(c) TQP
(d) JFE
(e) YVU
Ans. (d)
25. (a) BHE
(b) DJG
(c) SYV
(d) JPM
(e) PUS
Ans. (e)
Thursday, June 23, 2011
Reasoning and mental Aptitude Sample Paper
Reasoning and mental Aptitude Sample Paper
Sample Papers Series REASONING - MENTAL ABILITY - APTITUDE
Reasoning (Mental Aptitude) Solved Sample Question Paper.
1. A bird shooter was asked how many birds he had in the bag. He replied that there were all sparrows but six, all pigeons but six, and all ducks but six. How many birds had he in all?
(a) 9
(b) 18
(c) 27
(d) 36
Ans. (a)
2. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If he attempts all 75 questions and secures 125 marks, the number of questions he attempted correctly, is
(a) 35
(b) 40
(c) 42
(d) 46
Ans. (b)
3. Between two ends of a bookshelf in your study are displayed five of your favorite puzzle books. If you decide to arrange these five books in every possible combination and move just one book every minute, how long would it take you to do so?
(a) One hour Two hours
(b) Two hours
(c) Three hours
(d) Four hours
Ans. (b)
4. A father is, at present, three times as old as his son. Five years back, he was four times as old as his son. Find the age of his son.
(a) 12 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 20 years
Ans. (b)
5. If A stands for +, B stands for -, C stands for Х, then what is the value of (10 C 4) A (4 C 4) B 6?
(a) 60
(b) 56
(c) 50
(d) 20
Ans. (c)
6. If + stands for ‘division’, Х stands for ‘addition’, - stands for ‘multiplication’ and ÷ stands for ‘subtraction’, then which of the following equations is correct?
(a) 36 Х 6 + 7 ÷ 2 – 6 = 20
(b) 36 ÷ 6 + 3 Х 5 – 3 = 45
(c) 36 + 6 - 3 Х 5 ÷ 3 = 34
(d) 36 - 6 + 3 Х 5 ÷ 3 = 74
Ans. (d)
Directions: In each of the following questions if the interchanges are made in signs and numbers, which one of the four equations would be correct?
7. Given interchanges: Signs: - and ÷ and numbers 4 and 8
(a) 6 – 8 ÷ 4 = - 1
(b) 8 – 6 ÷ 4 = 1
(c) 4 ÷ 8 – 2 = 6
(d) 4 – 8 ÷ 6 = 2
Ans. (c)
8. Given interchanges: Signs: ÷ and + and numbers 4 and 2
(a) 4 + 2 ÷ 1 = 3/2
(b) 2 + 4 ÷ 3 = 6
(c) 4 + 2 ÷ 3 = 3
(d) 2 + 4 ÷ 5 = 8
Ans. (a)
9. Given interchanges: Signs: Х and + and numbers 2 and 8
(a) 8 Х 2 + 9 = 19
(b) 2 Х 8 + 10 = 13
(c) 2 + 8 Х 6 = 22
(d) 8 Х 2 + 6 = 19
Ans. (c)
10. Given interchanges: Signs: - and + and numbers 8 and 4
(a) 4 + 8 – 1 = 5
(b) 4 – 8 + 5 = 9
(c) 4 + 8 – 5 = 10
(d) 4 – 8 + 12 = 1
Ans. (a)
11. If 3 + 8 = 17; 5 – 2 = 23; 6 Х 2 = 72; then 8 ÷ 4 = ?
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 25
(d) 16
(e) 42
Ans. (d)
12. If 3 Х 4 = 14; 5 Х 6 = 33; 7 Х 8 = 60, then 8 Х 9 = ?
(a) 77
(b) 89
(c) 98
(d) 79
(e) 72
Ans. (a)
13. In a class of 60, the number of girls are twice that of boys. Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are nine girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank?
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 12
(d) 23
Ans. (c)
14. Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes at the second place.
(a) Music
(b) Mint
(c) Mink
(d) Murder
(e) Multiple
Ans. (b)
15. If a meaningful word can be formed by re-arranging the letters USCALA, the last letter of the word so formed is the answer. Which one is that?
(a) C
(b) S
(c) A
(d) L
(e) U
Ans. (d)
Hint : ANS: CASUAL
Sample Papers Series REASONING - MENTAL ABILITY - APTITUDE
Reasoning (Mental Aptitude) Solved Sample Question Paper.
1. A bird shooter was asked how many birds he had in the bag. He replied that there were all sparrows but six, all pigeons but six, and all ducks but six. How many birds had he in all?
(a) 9
(b) 18
(c) 27
(d) 36
Ans. (a)
2. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If he attempts all 75 questions and secures 125 marks, the number of questions he attempted correctly, is
(a) 35
(b) 40
(c) 42
(d) 46
Ans. (b)
3. Between two ends of a bookshelf in your study are displayed five of your favorite puzzle books. If you decide to arrange these five books in every possible combination and move just one book every minute, how long would it take you to do so?
(a) One hour Two hours
(b) Two hours
(c) Three hours
(d) Four hours
Ans. (b)
4. A father is, at present, three times as old as his son. Five years back, he was four times as old as his son. Find the age of his son.
(a) 12 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 20 years
Ans. (b)
5. If A stands for +, B stands for -, C stands for Х, then what is the value of (10 C 4) A (4 C 4) B 6?
(a) 60
(b) 56
(c) 50
(d) 20
Ans. (c)
6. If + stands for ‘division’, Х stands for ‘addition’, - stands for ‘multiplication’ and ÷ stands for ‘subtraction’, then which of the following equations is correct?
(a) 36 Х 6 + 7 ÷ 2 – 6 = 20
(b) 36 ÷ 6 + 3 Х 5 – 3 = 45
(c) 36 + 6 - 3 Х 5 ÷ 3 = 34
(d) 36 - 6 + 3 Х 5 ÷ 3 = 74
Ans. (d)
Directions: In each of the following questions if the interchanges are made in signs and numbers, which one of the four equations would be correct?
7. Given interchanges: Signs: - and ÷ and numbers 4 and 8
(a) 6 – 8 ÷ 4 = - 1
(b) 8 – 6 ÷ 4 = 1
(c) 4 ÷ 8 – 2 = 6
(d) 4 – 8 ÷ 6 = 2
Ans. (c)
8. Given interchanges: Signs: ÷ and + and numbers 4 and 2
(a) 4 + 2 ÷ 1 = 3/2
(b) 2 + 4 ÷ 3 = 6
(c) 4 + 2 ÷ 3 = 3
(d) 2 + 4 ÷ 5 = 8
Ans. (a)
9. Given interchanges: Signs: Х and + and numbers 2 and 8
(a) 8 Х 2 + 9 = 19
(b) 2 Х 8 + 10 = 13
(c) 2 + 8 Х 6 = 22
(d) 8 Х 2 + 6 = 19
Ans. (c)
10. Given interchanges: Signs: - and + and numbers 8 and 4
(a) 4 + 8 – 1 = 5
(b) 4 – 8 + 5 = 9
(c) 4 + 8 – 5 = 10
(d) 4 – 8 + 12 = 1
Ans. (a)
11. If 3 + 8 = 17; 5 – 2 = 23; 6 Х 2 = 72; then 8 ÷ 4 = ?
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 25
(d) 16
(e) 42
Ans. (d)
12. If 3 Х 4 = 14; 5 Х 6 = 33; 7 Х 8 = 60, then 8 Х 9 = ?
(a) 77
(b) 89
(c) 98
(d) 79
(e) 72
Ans. (a)
13. In a class of 60, the number of girls are twice that of boys. Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are nine girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank?
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 12
(d) 23
Ans. (c)
14. Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes at the second place.
(a) Music
(b) Mint
(c) Mink
(d) Murder
(e) Multiple
Ans. (b)
15. If a meaningful word can be formed by re-arranging the letters USCALA, the last letter of the word so formed is the answer. Which one is that?
(a) C
(b) S
(c) A
(d) L
(e) U
Ans. (d)
Hint : ANS: CASUAL
Thursday, June 9, 2011
Reasoning Model Paper
Reasoning Model Paper
Verbal Reasoning Sample Paper
1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters MASTE using each letter only once in each word
(1)None
(2) One
(3)Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
‘
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1)78
(2) 48
(3) 72
(4)54
(5) 42
3. In a certain cede SAFER is written as 5@3#2 and RIDE is written as 2©%#. How is FEDS written in that code ?
(1)3#©5
(2) 3@%5
(3)3#%5
(4) 3#%2
(5)None of these
4.. Pointing to a woman, Nirmal said, “She is the daughter of my wife’s grandfather’s only child”. How is the woman related to Nirmal
(1)Wife
(2)Sister-in-law
(3)Sister
(4)Data inadequate
(5)None of these
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1)Sweet
(2) Cake
(3)Pastry
(4) Bread.
(5) Biscuit
6. In a certain code CONFUSED is written as EMNBEFTV. How is SECLUDED written in that code
(1) RDBKEFEV
(2) KBDRCDCT
(3) KBDREFEV
(4) MDFTCDCT
(5) None of these
7. What should come next in the following letter series ?
Z XVT R P N U YW T J S Q O
(1)M
(2)K
(3)N
(4)J
(5)None of these
8. Flow many such digits are there in the number 9254716 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order
(1)None
(2) One
(3)Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
9. In a certain code language’ bring the board’ is written as ka na di pa’ and ‘white and black board’ is written as ‘na di sa ra’. How is ‘the’ written in that code ?
(l)ka
(2) pa
(3) ka or pa
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
10. Among B, F, J, K and W each having a different weight, F is heavier than only J. B is heavier than F and W but not as heavy 35 K. Who among them is the third heaviest among them ?
(1) B (2)F
• (4)W
(3) None of these
Directions (Q. 11 to 16) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
Y 4 8 A @ D F 3 # R N 1 M © W
P % J 2 E 5 Z * 6 Q B 7 $ H U 9 I K
11. Which of the following is the seventh to the right of the nineteenth from the right end of the above arrangement P
(1)1
(2)D
(3)Z
(4)$
(5)None of these
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group
(1)D#A
(2)JWE
(3)562
(4) $9B
(5)RM3
13. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter?
(1)None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
14. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol P
(1)None
(2) One
(3)Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
15. What should come next in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
8@D #N1 W%J 5*6
(1) 7HU
(2) 7$U
(3) 7#9
(4) B$#
(5) None of these
16. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fourteenth from the left end?
(1)W
(2)P
(3)6
(4)J
(5)None of these
Directions (Q. 17 to 22) In each question below are four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, II and IV. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the four given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is correct.
17. Statements
All belts are rollers.
Some rollers are wheels.
All wheels are mats.
Some mats are cars.
Conclusions
I. Some mats are rollers.
II. Some mats are belts.
III. Some cars are rollers.
IV Some rollers are belts.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I, III and IV follow
(3) Only I and IV follow
(4) Only II, III and IV follow
(5) None of these
18. Statements
Some tyres are rains.
Some rains are flowers.
All flowers are jungles.
All jungles are tubes.
Conclusions
I. Some jungles are tyres.
II. Some tubes are rains.
III. Some jungles are rains.
IV. Some tubes are flowers.
(1) Only I, II and III follow
(2) Only II, III and IV follow
(3) Only I, III and IV follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
19. Statements
All desks are chairs.
All chairs axe tables.
All tables are boxes.
All boxes are trunks.
Conclusions
I. Some trunks are tables.
II. All chairs are boxes.
III. Some boxes are desks.
P All desks are trunks.
(1) Only I ,II and III follow
(2) Only I, II and IV follow
(3) Only II, III and IV follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
20. Statements
Some birds are goats.
Some goats are horses.
Some horses are lions.
Some lions are tigers.
Conclusions
I. Some tigers are goats.
II. No tiger is goat.
III. Some lions are birds.
IV No lion is bird.
(1) Only either I or II follows
(2) Only either III or IV follows
(3) Only either I or II and either III or IV follow
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None of these
21. Statements :
All papers are bottles.
All bottles are cups.
Some cups are jugs.
Some jugs are plates.
Conclusions
I. Some plates are cups.
II. Some plates are bottles.
III. Some cups are papers.
IV Some bottles are papers. ‘
(1) Only III and IV follow
(2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only I and III follow
(4) Only II and IV follow
(5) None of these
22. Statements
All bulbs are wires.
No wire is cable.
Some cables are brushes.
Alt brushes are paints.
Conclusions
I. Some paints are cables.
II. Some wires are bulbs.
III. Some brushes are wires.
IV Some cables are bulbs.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I & II follow
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only TV follows
Directions (Q. 23 to 28) : In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Letter
R DA E J M K T B U I P W H F
Digit/Symbol Code:
4 8 5 $ * 1 2 6 % © 7@3 9 #
Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as +.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter, is a consonant their codes are to be interchanged.
23. HIFMJU
(1)©7#1*9
(2) 97#l*9
(3)©7#l*©
(4) +7#1*+
(5)None of these
24. AKTRBW
(1) 3264%5 (2) 3264%3
(3) 324%65 (4) 5264%3
(5) None of these
25. EBPDRI
(1) 7%@847
(2) 7%@84$
(3)$°/o@847
(4) $%8@47
(5) None of these
26. BKAJIM
(1) %25*71 (2) 125*7%
(3) O/o25*7% (4) 15*271
(5) None of these
27. UKPDMA
(1) 52@815 (2) ©2@815
(3) ©2@81C (4) ©@2815
(5) None of these
28. METUFB
(1) %$6©#1 (2) 1$6©#1
(3) %$6©#°/o (4) l$60#%
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 29 to 34) : A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : but 32 71 glory fair south 65 84
Step I south but 32 71 glory fair 65 84
Step II south 84 but 32 71 glory fair 65
Step III south 84 glory but 32 71 fair 65
Step T : south 84 glory 71 but 32 fair 65
Step V : south 84 glory 71 fair but 32 65
Step VI : south 84 glory 71 fair 65 but 32
and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
29. Step III of an input is: year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house 39
How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Two (4) Five
(5) None of these
30. Input: any how 49 24 far wide 34 69
Which of the following steps will be the last but one
(1) VI (2) VII
(3) V (4) VIII
(5) None of these
31. Step II of an input is: town 74 pair 15 31 nice job 42
Which of the following is definitely the input
(1) pair 15 31 town nice job 42 74
(2) pair 15 town 31 74 nice job 42
(3) pair 15 town 74 31 nice job 42
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
32. Input: play over 49 37 12 match now 81
Which of the following will be step IV
(1) play 81 over 49 37 match now
(2) play 8 over 49 37 12 match now
(3) play 81 over 49 now 37 match 12
(4) There will be no such step
(5) None of these
33. Step II of an input is : war 58 box cart 33 49 star 24
Which of the following steps will be the last
(1) V (2)VI
(3) IV (4) VII
(5) None of these
34. Input: shower fall water 34 51 67 98 goal.
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Five
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 35 to 40) : In the following questions, the symbols ©, @, $, % and * are used with following meanings as illustrated below
‘P @Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
In each question four statements showing relationship have been given, which are followed by four conclusions I, II, III & IV. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is /are definitely True.
35. Statements
M © D, D * K, K @ R , R * F
Conclusions
1. F©K
II. D * F
III. M © R
IV D * R
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) Only IV is true
36. Statements
B%K, K$ T, T* F ,H© F
Conclusions
I B$T
II©B
III H © K
IV. F © B
(1) Only either I or II is true
(2) Only III is true
(3) Only IV is true
(4) Only III and IV are true
(5) Only either I or II are true
37. Statementj
W * B, B@ F, F © R, R $ M
Conclusions
I W*F
II. M * B
III R * B
IV. M* W
(1) Only and IV are true
(2) Only II and III are true
(3) Only I and III are true
(4) Only II and IV are true
(5) None of these
38. Statements
E@ K, K $ T’, T © N,.B % N
Conclusions
I T%E
II K©N
III. B * T
IV. B * E
(I) Only I, II and III are true
(2) Only II, III and IV are true
(3) Only I, III and IV are true
(4) All are true
(5) None of these
39. Statements -
Z $ B, B % M, M © F, F @ R
Conclusions
I Z*M
II. F * B
III R*M
IV. M @ Z
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only I, III and IV are true
(3) Only III and IV are true
(4) Only either I or IV and III are true
(5) None of these
40. Statements
H@T , T $ N, F © N, B%F
Conclusions
I F@H
II F©T
III:B * T
IV B % H
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III and IV are true
(5) Only II and III are true
Answers
1 4
2 2
3 3
4 4
5 1
6 3
7 1
8 2
9 3
10 4
11 3
12 2
13 5
14 3
15 1
16 4
17 3
18 2
19 4
20 3
21 1
22 2
23 4
24 1
25 3
26 5
27 2
28 3
29 2
30 3
31 4
32 4
33 2
34 4
35 1
36 5
37 2
38 3
39 3
40 3
Verbal Reasoning Sample Paper
1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters MASTE using each letter only once in each word
(1)None
(2) One
(3)Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
‘
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1)78
(2) 48
(3) 72
(4)54
(5) 42
3. In a certain cede SAFER is written as 5@3#2 and RIDE is written as 2©%#. How is FEDS written in that code ?
(1)3#©5
(2) 3@%5
(3)3#%5
(4) 3#%2
(5)None of these
4.. Pointing to a woman, Nirmal said, “She is the daughter of my wife’s grandfather’s only child”. How is the woman related to Nirmal
(1)Wife
(2)Sister-in-law
(3)Sister
(4)Data inadequate
(5)None of these
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1)Sweet
(2) Cake
(3)Pastry
(4) Bread.
(5) Biscuit
6. In a certain code CONFUSED is written as EMNBEFTV. How is SECLUDED written in that code
(1) RDBKEFEV
(2) KBDRCDCT
(3) KBDREFEV
(4) MDFTCDCT
(5) None of these
7. What should come next in the following letter series ?
Z XVT R P N U YW T J S Q O
(1)M
(2)K
(3)N
(4)J
(5)None of these
8. Flow many such digits are there in the number 9254716 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order
(1)None
(2) One
(3)Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
9. In a certain code language’ bring the board’ is written as ka na di pa’ and ‘white and black board’ is written as ‘na di sa ra’. How is ‘the’ written in that code ?
(l)ka
(2) pa
(3) ka or pa
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
10. Among B, F, J, K and W each having a different weight, F is heavier than only J. B is heavier than F and W but not as heavy 35 K. Who among them is the third heaviest among them ?
(1) B (2)F
• (4)W
(3) None of these
Directions (Q. 11 to 16) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
Y 4 8 A @ D F 3 # R N 1 M © W
P % J 2 E 5 Z * 6 Q B 7 $ H U 9 I K
11. Which of the following is the seventh to the right of the nineteenth from the right end of the above arrangement P
(1)1
(2)D
(3)Z
(4)$
(5)None of these
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group
(1)D#A
(2)JWE
(3)562
(4) $9B
(5)RM3
13. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter?
(1)None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
14. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol P
(1)None
(2) One
(3)Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
15. What should come next in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
8@D #N1 W%J 5*6
(1) 7HU
(2) 7$U
(3) 7#9
(4) B$#
(5) None of these
16. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fourteenth from the left end?
(1)W
(2)P
(3)6
(4)J
(5)None of these
Directions (Q. 17 to 22) In each question below are four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, II and IV. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the four given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is correct.
17. Statements
All belts are rollers.
Some rollers are wheels.
All wheels are mats.
Some mats are cars.
Conclusions
I. Some mats are rollers.
II. Some mats are belts.
III. Some cars are rollers.
IV Some rollers are belts.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I, III and IV follow
(3) Only I and IV follow
(4) Only II, III and IV follow
(5) None of these
18. Statements
Some tyres are rains.
Some rains are flowers.
All flowers are jungles.
All jungles are tubes.
Conclusions
I. Some jungles are tyres.
II. Some tubes are rains.
III. Some jungles are rains.
IV. Some tubes are flowers.
(1) Only I, II and III follow
(2) Only II, III and IV follow
(3) Only I, III and IV follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
19. Statements
All desks are chairs.
All chairs axe tables.
All tables are boxes.
All boxes are trunks.
Conclusions
I. Some trunks are tables.
II. All chairs are boxes.
III. Some boxes are desks.
P All desks are trunks.
(1) Only I ,II and III follow
(2) Only I, II and IV follow
(3) Only II, III and IV follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
20. Statements
Some birds are goats.
Some goats are horses.
Some horses are lions.
Some lions are tigers.
Conclusions
I. Some tigers are goats.
II. No tiger is goat.
III. Some lions are birds.
IV No lion is bird.
(1) Only either I or II follows
(2) Only either III or IV follows
(3) Only either I or II and either III or IV follow
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None of these
21. Statements :
All papers are bottles.
All bottles are cups.
Some cups are jugs.
Some jugs are plates.
Conclusions
I. Some plates are cups.
II. Some plates are bottles.
III. Some cups are papers.
IV Some bottles are papers. ‘
(1) Only III and IV follow
(2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only I and III follow
(4) Only II and IV follow
(5) None of these
22. Statements
All bulbs are wires.
No wire is cable.
Some cables are brushes.
Alt brushes are paints.
Conclusions
I. Some paints are cables.
II. Some wires are bulbs.
III. Some brushes are wires.
IV Some cables are bulbs.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I & II follow
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only TV follows
Directions (Q. 23 to 28) : In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Letter
R DA E J M K T B U I P W H F
Digit/Symbol Code:
4 8 5 $ * 1 2 6 % © 7@3 9 #
Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as +.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter, is a consonant their codes are to be interchanged.
23. HIFMJU
(1)©7#1*9
(2) 97#l*9
(3)©7#l*©
(4) +7#1*+
(5)None of these
24. AKTRBW
(1) 3264%5 (2) 3264%3
(3) 324%65 (4) 5264%3
(5) None of these
25. EBPDRI
(1) 7%@847
(2) 7%@84$
(3)$°/o@847
(4) $%8@47
(5) None of these
26. BKAJIM
(1) %25*71 (2) 125*7%
(3) O/o25*7% (4) 15*271
(5) None of these
27. UKPDMA
(1) 52@815 (2) ©2@815
(3) ©2@81C (4) ©@2815
(5) None of these
28. METUFB
(1) %$6©#1 (2) 1$6©#1
(3) %$6©#°/o (4) l$60#%
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 29 to 34) : A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : but 32 71 glory fair south 65 84
Step I south but 32 71 glory fair 65 84
Step II south 84 but 32 71 glory fair 65
Step III south 84 glory but 32 71 fair 65
Step T : south 84 glory 71 but 32 fair 65
Step V : south 84 glory 71 fair but 32 65
Step VI : south 84 glory 71 fair 65 but 32
and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
29. Step III of an input is: year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house 39
How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Two (4) Five
(5) None of these
30. Input: any how 49 24 far wide 34 69
Which of the following steps will be the last but one
(1) VI (2) VII
(3) V (4) VIII
(5) None of these
31. Step II of an input is: town 74 pair 15 31 nice job 42
Which of the following is definitely the input
(1) pair 15 31 town nice job 42 74
(2) pair 15 town 31 74 nice job 42
(3) pair 15 town 74 31 nice job 42
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
32. Input: play over 49 37 12 match now 81
Which of the following will be step IV
(1) play 81 over 49 37 match now
(2) play 8 over 49 37 12 match now
(3) play 81 over 49 now 37 match 12
(4) There will be no such step
(5) None of these
33. Step II of an input is : war 58 box cart 33 49 star 24
Which of the following steps will be the last
(1) V (2)VI
(3) IV (4) VII
(5) None of these
34. Input: shower fall water 34 51 67 98 goal.
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Five
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 35 to 40) : In the following questions, the symbols ©, @, $, % and * are used with following meanings as illustrated below
‘P @Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
In each question four statements showing relationship have been given, which are followed by four conclusions I, II, III & IV. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is /are definitely True.
35. Statements
M © D, D * K, K @ R , R * F
Conclusions
1. F©K
II. D * F
III. M © R
IV D * R
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) Only IV is true
36. Statements
B%K, K$ T, T* F ,H© F
Conclusions
I B$T
II©B
III H © K
IV. F © B
(1) Only either I or II is true
(2) Only III is true
(3) Only IV is true
(4) Only III and IV are true
(5) Only either I or II are true
37. Statementj
W * B, B@ F, F © R, R $ M
Conclusions
I W*F
II. M * B
III R * B
IV. M* W
(1) Only and IV are true
(2) Only II and III are true
(3) Only I and III are true
(4) Only II and IV are true
(5) None of these
38. Statements
E@ K, K $ T’, T © N,.B % N
Conclusions
I T%E
II K©N
III. B * T
IV. B * E
(I) Only I, II and III are true
(2) Only II, III and IV are true
(3) Only I, III and IV are true
(4) All are true
(5) None of these
39. Statements -
Z $ B, B % M, M © F, F @ R
Conclusions
I Z*M
II. F * B
III R*M
IV. M @ Z
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only I, III and IV are true
(3) Only III and IV are true
(4) Only either I or IV and III are true
(5) None of these
40. Statements
H@T , T $ N, F © N, B%F
Conclusions
I F@H
II F©T
III:B * T
IV B % H
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III and IV are true
(5) Only II and III are true
Answers
1 4
2 2
3 3
4 4
5 1
6 3
7 1
8 2
9 3
10 4
11 3
12 2
13 5
14 3
15 1
16 4
17 3
18 2
19 4
20 3
21 1
22 2
23 4
24 1
25 3
26 5
27 2
28 3
29 2
30 3
31 4
32 4
33 2
34 4
35 1
36 5
37 2
38 3
39 3
40 3
Reasoning practice test COAL INDIA EXAM
Reasoning practice test COAL INDIA EXAM
MCQ Reasoning For COAL India jobs
Directions (Qs. 1 to 5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a school. Each of them studies in different standard from Standard IV to Standard X not necessarily in the same order. Each of them has favorite subject from English, Science, History, Geography, Mathematics, Hindi and Sanskrit not necessarily in the same order.
Q studies in VII Standard and does not like either Mathematics or Geography.
R likes English and does not study either in V or in IX
T studies in VIII Standard and likes Hindi.
The one who likes Science studies in X Standard.
S studies in iv Standard.
W likes Sanskrit.
P does not study in R Standard.
The one who likes Geography studies in V Standard
1. In which standard does W study?
(1)VIII
(2)IX
(3)X
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
2. Which subject does P like
(l) Geography
(2) Mathematics
(3) English
(4) History
(5) None of these
3 Which subject does S like
(1) History
(2 Geography
(3) Mathematics
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
4. In which standard does P study?
(i)IV
(2) V
(3)IX
(4)X
(5) None of these
5. Which of the following combinations of student-standard- subject is correct ?
(1)T – VIII – Mathematics
(2)W – VII -Sanskrit
(3)Q – VII -Geography
(4)V – X – Science
(5)None of these
Directions (Qs. 6 to 10) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
Following are the conditions for selecting Systems Manager in an organization
The candidate must
(i) be a graduate engineer in IT, Computer Science, Electronics with at least 60 percent marks.
(ii) be at least thirty years and not more than forty years as on 1.9.2009.
(iii) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the written examination.
(iv) have secured at least 50 percent marks in the selection interview.
(v) have post qualification work experience of at least ten years in the systems department of an organisation. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions
EXCEPT—
(a) at (1) above, but has secured at least 60 percent marks in ME IT or Computer Science, the case is to be referred to DGM-Systems.
(b) at (v) above, but has past qualification experience of at least five years as Deputy Systems Manager, the case is to be referred to the GM- Systems.
In each question below, details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub- conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything else other than the information provided for each candidate. All these cases are given to you as on 1.9.2009. Mark answer
(1) if the candidate is to be selected.
(2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
(3) if the case is to be referred to DGM-Systems.
(4) if the case is to be referred to GM-Systems.
(5) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
6. Samir Ghosh was born on 25th May 1978. He has secured 65 percent marks in BE-IT in the year 1999. Since then he is working in the systems department of an organization. He has secured 50 percent marks in both written examination and selection interview
7. Navin Prakash has secured 62 percent marks in BE-Computer Science. He has been working in the systems department of an organisation since July 1999 after completion of BE. He was born on 4th April 1974. He has secured 55 percent marks in selection interview and 45 percent marks in the written exam
8. Neeta Pathak has been working as Deputy Systems Manager in an organization for the past seven years after completing her BE in IT with 70 percent marks. She has secured 45 percent marks in selection interview and 55 percent marks in the written examination. She was born on 12th November, 1978.
9. Ashok Malhotra,was born on 19th March 1977. He has secured 56 percent marks in both selection interview and written examination. He has secured 58 percent marks in BE-IT and 72 percent marks in ME-IT He has been working in the systems department of an organization for the past eleven years after completing ME-IT
10. Gemma D’Souza was born on15th December 1972. She has secured 60 percent marks in both written examination and selection interview. She has been working as Deputy Systems Manager for the last six years in an organization after completing her BE-Electronics with 75 percent
Directions (Qs. 11 to 15) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(i) A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are eight students each having a different height.
(ii) D is shorter than A but taller than G.
(iii) E is taller than H but shorter than C.
(iv) B is shorter than D but taller than E
(v) C is shorter than G.
(vi) G is not as tall as F.
11. Which of the following is definitely false ?
(1) G is shorter than F
(2) C is shorter than F
(3) F is taller than C
(4) B is taller than E
(5) All are true
12. If another student J who is taller than E but shorter than G is added to the group, which of the following will be definitely true
(1) C and J are of same height
(2) J is shorter than D
(3) J is shorter than H
(4) J is taller than A
(5) None of these
13. Which of the following will definitely be the third from top when the eight students are arranged in descending order of height ?
(1) B
(2) F
(3)G
(4) B or G
(5) Cannot be determined
14. How many of them are definitely shorter than F
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
15. Which of the following is redundant to answer all the above questions ?
(1) (ii) only
(2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (iii) and (iv) only
(4) (ii) and (v) only
(5) All are necessary to answer the above question
Directions (Qs. 16 to 20) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer
(1) if the inference is “definitely true” i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
(2) if the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(3) if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
(4) if the inference is “probably false” though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given.
(5) if the inference is “definitely false” i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
A recent report that satellite data shows groundwater levels in northern India depleting by as much as a foot per year over the, past decade, is a matter of concern. The clear writing on the wall is that India faces a turbulent water future and veritable crisis without proactive policy and sustainable practices. Besides, the poor monsoon this season and the resultant drought situation pan-India calls for sustained policy focus on the water economy. A whole series of glaring anomalies do need to be addressed. For one, there’s far too much reliance on groundwater. For another, our water infrastructure for storage and supply is sorely inadequate. Worse, policy distortions in artificially under pricing key agri-inputs like power have perversely incentivised cultivation of water intensive crops like paddy in traditionally wheat growing areas.
16. India has failed to take measures to recharge groundwater adequately in northern part.
17. Wheat cultivation in India requires comparatively more water than paddy.
18. Water level in other parts of India is stable during the last decade.
19. India has now put in place a system to reduce over dependence on groundwater.
20. Adequate monsoon helps in drawing less ground water for cultivation and thus preserve balance.
Directions (Qs. 21 to 27) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between “strong arguments and “weak” arguments. “Strong” arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak” arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question.
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the argument(s) is/are “strong” and select your answer accordingly.
21. Should the Government restrict use of electricity for each household depending upon the requirement?
Arguments
I. Yes, this will help Government tide over the problem of inadequate generation of
electricity.
II.No, every citizen has right to consume electricity as per their requirement as they pay for using electricity
III. No, the Government does not have the machinery to put such a restriction on use of electricity.
(1) Only I is strong
(2) Only II is strong
(3) Only I and II are strong
(4) Only II and III are strong
(5) All I, II and III are strong
22. Should the Government order closure of all educational institutions for a month to avoid fast spreading of the contagious viral infection
Arguments
I. No, closure of educational institution alone is not the solution for curbing spread of viral infection.
II. No, students will visit crowded places like malls, markets, playgrounds etc. in mote numbers and spread the disease, as they will have lot of spare time at theft disposal.
III. Yes, young persons are more prone to get affected by the viral infection and hence they should remain in doors.
(1) None is strong
(2) Only us strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only I and II are strong
(5) All I, II and III are strong
23. Should the Government ban export of all types of food grains the next one year to tide over unpredicted drought situation in country
Arguments
I. Yes, there is no other way to provide food to its citizen during the year.
II. No, the Government does not have its jurisdiction over private exporters for banning exports.
III. Yes, the Government should not allow the exporters to export food grains and procure all the foodgrains held by such exports and make it available for home consumption.
(I) Only I and II are strong
(2) Only II and III strong
(3) Only I and III are strong
(4) All I, II and III are strong
(5) None of these
24. Should there be a common syllabus for all subjects in graduate courses in all the universities across the country
Arguments
I. Yes, this is the only way to spring in Uniformity in the education system in the country.
II. Yes, it will help standardize the quality of graduation. Certificates being given by differ universities in the county.
III. No, each university should have the autonomy to decide its syllabus based on the specific requirement of the university.
(I) None is strong
(2) Only I is strong
(3) Only II is strong
(4) Only I and II are strong
(5) Only II and III are strong
25. Should all those students who failed in one or two subjects in HSC be allowed to take admission in degree courses and continue their study subject to their successfully passing in the supplementary examination ?
Arguments
I. Yes, this will help the students to complete theft education without a break of one year.
II. Yes, this is a forward looking strategy to help the students and motivate them for higher studies.
III. No, such students do not choose to continue their studies without having passed in all the subjects in HSC.
(1) Only I is strong
(2) Only II is strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only either II or III and I are strong
(5) None of these
26. Effect
At least twenty schoolchildren were seriously injured while going for a school picnic during the weekend.
Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above effect
(1) The teacher accompanying the school children fell ill during the journey
(2) The bus in which the children were travelling met with an accident while taking turn on the main highway.
(3) The driver of the bus in which the children were travelling did not report after the break at the halting place on their journey.
(4) The school authority banned all school picnics for the next six months with immediate effect
(5) None of these
27.Cause
Government has recently decided to hike the procurement price of paddy for the rabi crops.
Which of the following will be a possible effect of the above cause
(1) The farmers may be encouraged to cultivate paddy for the rabi season.
(2) The farmers may switch over to other cash crops in their paddy fields.
(3)There was a drop in production of paddy during Kharif season.
(4)Government may not increase the procurement price of paddy during the next Kharif
season.
(5)Government will buy paddy from the open market during the next few months.
28. Statement
Many patients suffering from malaria were administered anti malarial drug for a week. Some of them did not respond to the traditional drug and their condition deteriorated after four days.
Which of the following would weaken the findings mentioned in the above statement
(1) Those patients who responded to the traditional drugs and recovered were needed to be given additional doses as they reported relapse of symptoms.
(2) The mosquitoes carrying malaria are found to be resistant to traditional malarial drugs.
(3) Majority of the patients suffering from malaria responded well to the traditional malarial drugs and recovered from the illness.
(4)Many drug companies have stopped manufacturing traditional malarial drugs.
(5) None of these
29. Statement
The cost of manufacturing cars in state A is thirty percent less than the cost of manufacturing cars in state B. Even after transportation fee for the differential distances of states A and B and the interstate taxes, it is cheaper to manufacture cars in state B than state A for selling these cars in Stare C.
Which of the following supports the conclusion drawn in the above statement?
(1) The cost of transportation from state A to state C is mote than thirty percent of the production cost
(2) The production costs of cars in state B are lower in comparison to state A
(3) Only Entry tax at state C is more for the products originated in state A
(4) Entry tax at state C is more for the products originated in state B
(5) The total of transportation cost of cars from state B to state C and entry tax of cars at state C is less than thirty percent of the production cost of cars in state B
.
30. Statement
Many people are of the opinion that use of cell phones in offices for personal use should totally be banned. It has been found in a research study that there was significant drop in output of employees in the organisation where use of cell phones was liberally allowed vis-a-vis those organizations where use of cell phones is banned for making personal calls.
Which of the following contradicts the findings of stated in the above statement?
(1) People spend more, time on talking while using cell phone for personal calls.
(2)Use of cell phones has become common in all the organisations.
(3) In the organisation where employees were allowed to use cell phones for making personal calls the employees are found to be more motivated to carry out their duties than those working in other organizations.
(4) Many organisations who provide cell phones to their employees for making official calls advise them to refrain from making personal calls during office hours
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 31 to 37) In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
31. Statement
The members belonging to two local clubs occasionally fight with each other on the main road and block traffic movement.
Courses of action
I. The local police station should immediately deploy police personnel round the clock on, the main road.
II Those involved in fighting should be identified and put behind bars.
III. The local administration should disband the management of the two clubs
with immediate effect.
(1)Only I and II follow
(2)Only II and III follow
(3)Only I and I follow
(4)All I, II and III follow
(5)None of these
32. Statement
Many students of the local school fell ill for the fourth time in a row in the last six months after consuming food prepared by the school canteen.
Courses of action
I. The school management should immediately terminate the contract of the canteen and ask for compensation.
II. The school management should advise all the students not to eat food articles from the canteen.
III. The owner of the canteen should immediately be arrested for negligence.
(1) None follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) Only TI and III follow
33. Statement
Many school buses have fitted CNG Kit without observing the safety guideline properly. This results into some instances of these buses catching fire due to short circuit and endangering the lives of the school children.
Courses of action
I. The regional transport authority should immediately carry out checks of all the school buses fitted with CNG Kit.
II. The management of all the schools should stop hiring buses fitted with CNG Kit.
III. The Government should issue a notification banning school buses for use of CNG Kit.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None of these
34. Statement
A sudden cloud burst over the island city resulted into unpredicted rainfall causing flood like situation in the entire area. Large number of people were caught unaware and were stranded on the road.
Courses of action
I. The local administration should immediately put in place an action plan for avoiding such situation in future.
II. The local administration should immediately deploy personnel to help the stranded people, to move to safer places.
III. The local administration should advise all the citizens not to venture out on the road till situation improves.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only II and III follow
(5). All I, II and III follow
35. Statement
It is reported that during the last fortnight there has been three cases of near miss situation involving two aircrafts over the busy city airport. In all these cases both the aircrafts came perilously close to each other and could avoid confusion as the pilots acted just in time.
Courses of action
I The pilots of all the six aircrafts involved in these incidents should immediately be de-rostered.
II. Some flights should be diverted to other airports for the next few months to decongest the sky over the city airport.
III. Air traffic controllers of the city airport should be sent for refresher courses in batches to prepare themselves to handle such pressure situation.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only II and III follow
(5) None of these
36. A, B, C, D and E are five students in a class. D did not enter along with A or F but entered before C. B did not enter before C but entered along with A. E was not the last to enter:
Which of ,the following is definitely true ?
(1) C entered the class only after D
(2) D entered the class only after E
(3) B entered the class after A
(4) A entered the class after D
(5) None of these
37. D is brother of K. M is sister of K. T is father of R who is brother of M. F is mother of K. At least how many sons does T and F have ?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
38. Statement
In a move that could provide some respite to ailing airline companies, the Government is looking at allowing them to import jet fuel on their own.
Which of the following can be definitely concluded from the above statement
(1) Airline companies in the past have imported jet fuel
(2) The price of imported jet fuel is less than the price of jet fuel available in the local market.
(3) Central Government will lose huge amount of money if jet fuel is imported.
(4) Airline companies are making considerable profit in the recent months.
(5) None of these
39. Statement
Some of the country’s largest food beverage and pharma companies may be forced to import sugar directly as the Government plans to improve stock limits on industrial consumers to ease the shortage in grocery shops and cool down prices that are at a 28-month high.
Which of the following substantiates the views expressed in the above statement ?
(1) Food, pharma and beverage companies were not allowed in the past to import
sugar.
(2)Sugar prices have been fluctuating for the past seven months.
(3)Government does not have authority to restrict purchase of sugar from the open
market.
(4)Import of sugar for commercial use will help lowering down the sugar price in the retail market
(5)None of these
40. Statement
A recent review reported that India’s fashion industry has been severely affected due to a slump in demand for luxury apparel, leather goods, besides gems and jewellery in domestic as well as international markets.
Which of the following contradicts the views expressed in the above statement?
(1) India’s fashion industry has been growing till last year
(2) Government has helped India’s fashion industry to grow in the past
(3) Domestic market of fashion goods reflects the sentiments of international market
(4) Share of fashion goods manufactured by India is negligible in the international market
(5) None of these
Answers :
1 Ans 2
2 Ans 1
3 Ans 3
4 Ans 5
5 Ans 4
6 Ans 1
7 Ans 1
8 Ans 2
9 Ans 3
10 Ans 4
11 Ans 5
12 Ans 2
13 Ans 1
14 Ans 2
15 Ans 5
16 Ans 1
17 Ans 5
18 Ans 3
19 Ans 4
20 Ans 2
21 Ans 3
22 Ans 2
23 Ans 5
24 Ans 4
25 Ans 1
26 Ans 2
27 Ans 1
28 Ans 3
29 Ans 5
30 Ans 3
31 Ans 1
32 Ans 4
33 Ans 1
34 Ans 4
35 Ans 3
36 Ans 4
37 Ans 4
38 Ans 2
39 Ans 4
40 Ans 4
MCQ Reasoning For COAL India jobs
Directions (Qs. 1 to 5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a school. Each of them studies in different standard from Standard IV to Standard X not necessarily in the same order. Each of them has favorite subject from English, Science, History, Geography, Mathematics, Hindi and Sanskrit not necessarily in the same order.
Q studies in VII Standard and does not like either Mathematics or Geography.
R likes English and does not study either in V or in IX
T studies in VIII Standard and likes Hindi.
The one who likes Science studies in X Standard.
S studies in iv Standard.
W likes Sanskrit.
P does not study in R Standard.
The one who likes Geography studies in V Standard
1. In which standard does W study?
(1)VIII
(2)IX
(3)X
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
2. Which subject does P like
(l) Geography
(2) Mathematics
(3) English
(4) History
(5) None of these
3 Which subject does S like
(1) History
(2 Geography
(3) Mathematics
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
4. In which standard does P study?
(i)IV
(2) V
(3)IX
(4)X
(5) None of these
5. Which of the following combinations of student-standard- subject is correct ?
(1)T – VIII – Mathematics
(2)W – VII -Sanskrit
(3)Q – VII -Geography
(4)V – X – Science
(5)None of these
Directions (Qs. 6 to 10) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
Following are the conditions for selecting Systems Manager in an organization
The candidate must
(i) be a graduate engineer in IT, Computer Science, Electronics with at least 60 percent marks.
(ii) be at least thirty years and not more than forty years as on 1.9.2009.
(iii) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the written examination.
(iv) have secured at least 50 percent marks in the selection interview.
(v) have post qualification work experience of at least ten years in the systems department of an organisation. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions
EXCEPT—
(a) at (1) above, but has secured at least 60 percent marks in ME IT or Computer Science, the case is to be referred to DGM-Systems.
(b) at (v) above, but has past qualification experience of at least five years as Deputy Systems Manager, the case is to be referred to the GM- Systems.
In each question below, details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub- conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything else other than the information provided for each candidate. All these cases are given to you as on 1.9.2009. Mark answer
(1) if the candidate is to be selected.
(2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
(3) if the case is to be referred to DGM-Systems.
(4) if the case is to be referred to GM-Systems.
(5) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
6. Samir Ghosh was born on 25th May 1978. He has secured 65 percent marks in BE-IT in the year 1999. Since then he is working in the systems department of an organization. He has secured 50 percent marks in both written examination and selection interview
7. Navin Prakash has secured 62 percent marks in BE-Computer Science. He has been working in the systems department of an organisation since July 1999 after completion of BE. He was born on 4th April 1974. He has secured 55 percent marks in selection interview and 45 percent marks in the written exam
8. Neeta Pathak has been working as Deputy Systems Manager in an organization for the past seven years after completing her BE in IT with 70 percent marks. She has secured 45 percent marks in selection interview and 55 percent marks in the written examination. She was born on 12th November, 1978.
9. Ashok Malhotra,was born on 19th March 1977. He has secured 56 percent marks in both selection interview and written examination. He has secured 58 percent marks in BE-IT and 72 percent marks in ME-IT He has been working in the systems department of an organization for the past eleven years after completing ME-IT
10. Gemma D’Souza was born on15th December 1972. She has secured 60 percent marks in both written examination and selection interview. She has been working as Deputy Systems Manager for the last six years in an organization after completing her BE-Electronics with 75 percent
Directions (Qs. 11 to 15) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(i) A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are eight students each having a different height.
(ii) D is shorter than A but taller than G.
(iii) E is taller than H but shorter than C.
(iv) B is shorter than D but taller than E
(v) C is shorter than G.
(vi) G is not as tall as F.
11. Which of the following is definitely false ?
(1) G is shorter than F
(2) C is shorter than F
(3) F is taller than C
(4) B is taller than E
(5) All are true
12. If another student J who is taller than E but shorter than G is added to the group, which of the following will be definitely true
(1) C and J are of same height
(2) J is shorter than D
(3) J is shorter than H
(4) J is taller than A
(5) None of these
13. Which of the following will definitely be the third from top when the eight students are arranged in descending order of height ?
(1) B
(2) F
(3)G
(4) B or G
(5) Cannot be determined
14. How many of them are definitely shorter than F
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
15. Which of the following is redundant to answer all the above questions ?
(1) (ii) only
(2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (iii) and (iv) only
(4) (ii) and (v) only
(5) All are necessary to answer the above question
Directions (Qs. 16 to 20) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer
(1) if the inference is “definitely true” i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
(2) if the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(3) if the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
(4) if the inference is “probably false” though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given.
(5) if the inference is “definitely false” i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
A recent report that satellite data shows groundwater levels in northern India depleting by as much as a foot per year over the, past decade, is a matter of concern. The clear writing on the wall is that India faces a turbulent water future and veritable crisis without proactive policy and sustainable practices. Besides, the poor monsoon this season and the resultant drought situation pan-India calls for sustained policy focus on the water economy. A whole series of glaring anomalies do need to be addressed. For one, there’s far too much reliance on groundwater. For another, our water infrastructure for storage and supply is sorely inadequate. Worse, policy distortions in artificially under pricing key agri-inputs like power have perversely incentivised cultivation of water intensive crops like paddy in traditionally wheat growing areas.
16. India has failed to take measures to recharge groundwater adequately in northern part.
17. Wheat cultivation in India requires comparatively more water than paddy.
18. Water level in other parts of India is stable during the last decade.
19. India has now put in place a system to reduce over dependence on groundwater.
20. Adequate monsoon helps in drawing less ground water for cultivation and thus preserve balance.
Directions (Qs. 21 to 27) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between “strong arguments and “weak” arguments. “Strong” arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak” arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question.
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the argument(s) is/are “strong” and select your answer accordingly.
21. Should the Government restrict use of electricity for each household depending upon the requirement?
Arguments
I. Yes, this will help Government tide over the problem of inadequate generation of
electricity.
II.No, every citizen has right to consume electricity as per their requirement as they pay for using electricity
III. No, the Government does not have the machinery to put such a restriction on use of electricity.
(1) Only I is strong
(2) Only II is strong
(3) Only I and II are strong
(4) Only II and III are strong
(5) All I, II and III are strong
22. Should the Government order closure of all educational institutions for a month to avoid fast spreading of the contagious viral infection
Arguments
I. No, closure of educational institution alone is not the solution for curbing spread of viral infection.
II. No, students will visit crowded places like malls, markets, playgrounds etc. in mote numbers and spread the disease, as they will have lot of spare time at theft disposal.
III. Yes, young persons are more prone to get affected by the viral infection and hence they should remain in doors.
(1) None is strong
(2) Only us strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only I and II are strong
(5) All I, II and III are strong
23. Should the Government ban export of all types of food grains the next one year to tide over unpredicted drought situation in country
Arguments
I. Yes, there is no other way to provide food to its citizen during the year.
II. No, the Government does not have its jurisdiction over private exporters for banning exports.
III. Yes, the Government should not allow the exporters to export food grains and procure all the foodgrains held by such exports and make it available for home consumption.
(I) Only I and II are strong
(2) Only II and III strong
(3) Only I and III are strong
(4) All I, II and III are strong
(5) None of these
24. Should there be a common syllabus for all subjects in graduate courses in all the universities across the country
Arguments
I. Yes, this is the only way to spring in Uniformity in the education system in the country.
II. Yes, it will help standardize the quality of graduation. Certificates being given by differ universities in the county.
III. No, each university should have the autonomy to decide its syllabus based on the specific requirement of the university.
(I) None is strong
(2) Only I is strong
(3) Only II is strong
(4) Only I and II are strong
(5) Only II and III are strong
25. Should all those students who failed in one or two subjects in HSC be allowed to take admission in degree courses and continue their study subject to their successfully passing in the supplementary examination ?
Arguments
I. Yes, this will help the students to complete theft education without a break of one year.
II. Yes, this is a forward looking strategy to help the students and motivate them for higher studies.
III. No, such students do not choose to continue their studies without having passed in all the subjects in HSC.
(1) Only I is strong
(2) Only II is strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only either II or III and I are strong
(5) None of these
26. Effect
At least twenty schoolchildren were seriously injured while going for a school picnic during the weekend.
Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above effect
(1) The teacher accompanying the school children fell ill during the journey
(2) The bus in which the children were travelling met with an accident while taking turn on the main highway.
(3) The driver of the bus in which the children were travelling did not report after the break at the halting place on their journey.
(4) The school authority banned all school picnics for the next six months with immediate effect
(5) None of these
27.Cause
Government has recently decided to hike the procurement price of paddy for the rabi crops.
Which of the following will be a possible effect of the above cause
(1) The farmers may be encouraged to cultivate paddy for the rabi season.
(2) The farmers may switch over to other cash crops in their paddy fields.
(3)There was a drop in production of paddy during Kharif season.
(4)Government may not increase the procurement price of paddy during the next Kharif
season.
(5)Government will buy paddy from the open market during the next few months.
28. Statement
Many patients suffering from malaria were administered anti malarial drug for a week. Some of them did not respond to the traditional drug and their condition deteriorated after four days.
Which of the following would weaken the findings mentioned in the above statement
(1) Those patients who responded to the traditional drugs and recovered were needed to be given additional doses as they reported relapse of symptoms.
(2) The mosquitoes carrying malaria are found to be resistant to traditional malarial drugs.
(3) Majority of the patients suffering from malaria responded well to the traditional malarial drugs and recovered from the illness.
(4)Many drug companies have stopped manufacturing traditional malarial drugs.
(5) None of these
29. Statement
The cost of manufacturing cars in state A is thirty percent less than the cost of manufacturing cars in state B. Even after transportation fee for the differential distances of states A and B and the interstate taxes, it is cheaper to manufacture cars in state B than state A for selling these cars in Stare C.
Which of the following supports the conclusion drawn in the above statement?
(1) The cost of transportation from state A to state C is mote than thirty percent of the production cost
(2) The production costs of cars in state B are lower in comparison to state A
(3) Only Entry tax at state C is more for the products originated in state A
(4) Entry tax at state C is more for the products originated in state B
(5) The total of transportation cost of cars from state B to state C and entry tax of cars at state C is less than thirty percent of the production cost of cars in state B
.
30. Statement
Many people are of the opinion that use of cell phones in offices for personal use should totally be banned. It has been found in a research study that there was significant drop in output of employees in the organisation where use of cell phones was liberally allowed vis-a-vis those organizations where use of cell phones is banned for making personal calls.
Which of the following contradicts the findings of stated in the above statement?
(1) People spend more, time on talking while using cell phone for personal calls.
(2)Use of cell phones has become common in all the organisations.
(3) In the organisation where employees were allowed to use cell phones for making personal calls the employees are found to be more motivated to carry out their duties than those working in other organizations.
(4) Many organisations who provide cell phones to their employees for making official calls advise them to refrain from making personal calls during office hours
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 31 to 37) In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
31. Statement
The members belonging to two local clubs occasionally fight with each other on the main road and block traffic movement.
Courses of action
I. The local police station should immediately deploy police personnel round the clock on, the main road.
II Those involved in fighting should be identified and put behind bars.
III. The local administration should disband the management of the two clubs
with immediate effect.
(1)Only I and II follow
(2)Only II and III follow
(3)Only I and I follow
(4)All I, II and III follow
(5)None of these
32. Statement
Many students of the local school fell ill for the fourth time in a row in the last six months after consuming food prepared by the school canteen.
Courses of action
I. The school management should immediately terminate the contract of the canteen and ask for compensation.
II. The school management should advise all the students not to eat food articles from the canteen.
III. The owner of the canteen should immediately be arrested for negligence.
(1) None follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) Only TI and III follow
33. Statement
Many school buses have fitted CNG Kit without observing the safety guideline properly. This results into some instances of these buses catching fire due to short circuit and endangering the lives of the school children.
Courses of action
I. The regional transport authority should immediately carry out checks of all the school buses fitted with CNG Kit.
II. The management of all the schools should stop hiring buses fitted with CNG Kit.
III. The Government should issue a notification banning school buses for use of CNG Kit.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None of these
34. Statement
A sudden cloud burst over the island city resulted into unpredicted rainfall causing flood like situation in the entire area. Large number of people were caught unaware and were stranded on the road.
Courses of action
I. The local administration should immediately put in place an action plan for avoiding such situation in future.
II. The local administration should immediately deploy personnel to help the stranded people, to move to safer places.
III. The local administration should advise all the citizens not to venture out on the road till situation improves.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only II and III follow
(5). All I, II and III follow
35. Statement
It is reported that during the last fortnight there has been three cases of near miss situation involving two aircrafts over the busy city airport. In all these cases both the aircrafts came perilously close to each other and could avoid confusion as the pilots acted just in time.
Courses of action
I The pilots of all the six aircrafts involved in these incidents should immediately be de-rostered.
II. Some flights should be diverted to other airports for the next few months to decongest the sky over the city airport.
III. Air traffic controllers of the city airport should be sent for refresher courses in batches to prepare themselves to handle such pressure situation.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only II and III follow
(5) None of these
36. A, B, C, D and E are five students in a class. D did not enter along with A or F but entered before C. B did not enter before C but entered along with A. E was not the last to enter:
Which of ,the following is definitely true ?
(1) C entered the class only after D
(2) D entered the class only after E
(3) B entered the class after A
(4) A entered the class after D
(5) None of these
37. D is brother of K. M is sister of K. T is father of R who is brother of M. F is mother of K. At least how many sons does T and F have ?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
38. Statement
In a move that could provide some respite to ailing airline companies, the Government is looking at allowing them to import jet fuel on their own.
Which of the following can be definitely concluded from the above statement
(1) Airline companies in the past have imported jet fuel
(2) The price of imported jet fuel is less than the price of jet fuel available in the local market.
(3) Central Government will lose huge amount of money if jet fuel is imported.
(4) Airline companies are making considerable profit in the recent months.
(5) None of these
39. Statement
Some of the country’s largest food beverage and pharma companies may be forced to import sugar directly as the Government plans to improve stock limits on industrial consumers to ease the shortage in grocery shops and cool down prices that are at a 28-month high.
Which of the following substantiates the views expressed in the above statement ?
(1) Food, pharma and beverage companies were not allowed in the past to import
sugar.
(2)Sugar prices have been fluctuating for the past seven months.
(3)Government does not have authority to restrict purchase of sugar from the open
market.
(4)Import of sugar for commercial use will help lowering down the sugar price in the retail market
(5)None of these
40. Statement
A recent review reported that India’s fashion industry has been severely affected due to a slump in demand for luxury apparel, leather goods, besides gems and jewellery in domestic as well as international markets.
Which of the following contradicts the views expressed in the above statement?
(1) India’s fashion industry has been growing till last year
(2) Government has helped India’s fashion industry to grow in the past
(3) Domestic market of fashion goods reflects the sentiments of international market
(4) Share of fashion goods manufactured by India is negligible in the international market
(5) None of these
Answers :
1 Ans 2
2 Ans 1
3 Ans 3
4 Ans 5
5 Ans 4
6 Ans 1
7 Ans 1
8 Ans 2
9 Ans 3
10 Ans 4
11 Ans 5
12 Ans 2
13 Ans 1
14 Ans 2
15 Ans 5
16 Ans 1
17 Ans 5
18 Ans 3
19 Ans 4
20 Ans 2
21 Ans 3
22 Ans 2
23 Ans 5
24 Ans 4
25 Ans 1
26 Ans 2
27 Ans 1
28 Ans 3
29 Ans 5
30 Ans 3
31 Ans 1
32 Ans 4
33 Ans 1
34 Ans 4
35 Ans 3
36 Ans 4
37 Ans 4
38 Ans 2
39 Ans 4
40 Ans 4
Verbal Reasoning solved online test
Verbal Reasoning solved online test
Free Verbal Reasoning Online Practice Test
Test of Verbal Reasoning Solved Questions
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ORGANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
2. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter only once in each word?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (B)
3. The position of how many digits in the dumber 8247531 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
4. In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3$ and NEWS is written as $1@8. How is SOME written in that code?
(A) 8% 51
(B) 85% 8
(C) 8@ 51
(D) 8% 31
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
5. In a certain code language ‘how many books’ is written as ‘sa da na’ and ‘many more days’ is written as ‘ka pa da’. How is ‘books’ written in that code language?
(A) sa
(B) na
(C) sa or na
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
6. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as ‘PKBNXSHQ’. How is SANCTION written in that code?
(A) TBODMNHS
(B) DOBTMNHS
(C) TBODSHNM
(D) DOBTOPJU
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
7. The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
8. ‘BE’ is related to ‘GJ’ in the same way as ‘PS’ is related to……..?
(A) UY
(B) UX
(C) UZ
(D) VY
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
9. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored the highest marks?
(A) P
(B) T
(C) R
(0) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
10. Pointing to a girl, Nidhi said, ‘she is the daughter of my grandmother’s only child’. how is the girl related to Nidhi?
(A) Sister
(B) Self
(C) Cousin sister
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
11. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to the right of R who is sixteenth from the right end of the row. What is W’s position from the right end of the row?
(A) Eleventh
(B) Tenth
(C) Twelfth
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 12—14) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow— Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organized in a week from Monday to Saturday with one play each day and no play was organized on one of these days. Play D was organized before Thursday but after Monday. Play E was organized on Saturday. Play C was not organized on the first day. Play B was organized on the next day on which play C was organized. Play A was organized on
12.On which day was play B organized?
(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
13. On which day no play was organized?
(A) Monday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Data inadequate
(F) None of these
Ans. (A)
14. Which play was organized on Wednesday?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
15. If’ ‘÷’ means ‘+‘; ‘x’ means ‘- ‘, ‘ + ‘ means x’ and - means +then 24-4 ÷ 6 x 3+ 4 =?
(A) 36
(B) 24
(C) 8
(D) 4
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
16. What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 1 2 3 4 5 9 8 7 1 2 3 4 5 9 8 7 1 2 3 4 9 8
(A) 7
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
17. Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?.
(A) Q
(B) K
(C) P
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
18. Meena correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after eighteenth May but before twenty second May. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is before twenty-fourth May but after twentieth May. On which date in May was definitely their father’s birthday?
(A) Twentieth
(B) Nineteenth
(C) Eighteenth
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 19—20) Study the following information and answer the questions given below—
(i) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
(ii) ‘P x Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
(iii)’ P — Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
(iv) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
19. Which of the following means ‘M is maternal uncle of ‘T’?
(A) M ÷ K + T
(B) M x K + T
(C) M x K – T
(D) M ÷ K – T
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
20. Which of the following means ‘H’ is paternal grandfather of ‘T’?
(A) H ÷ J ÷ T
(B) T x K + H
(C) H ÷ J x T
(D) H – J + T
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 21-25) Following questions are based on the five three- digit numbers given below –
832 965 748 259 614
21. Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 4
Ans. (E)
22. Which of the following is the sum of the first and the second digits of the highest number?
(A) 11
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
23. If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number?
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3
Ans. (A)
24.If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number?
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 5
Ans. (E)
25. Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third highest number?
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 7
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 26—31) In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
26. Statements:
All stones are poles.
All poles are desks.
Some desks are nets.
All nets are days.
Conclusions:
I. Some nets are stones.
II Some desks are stones.
III. Some days are desks.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and Ill follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
27. Statements:
Some months are weeks. Some weeks are years.
All years are buses. All buses are trains.
Conclusions:
1. Some trains are weeks.
ll. Some buses are weeks.
III Some trains are months.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
28. Statements:
Some stations are rails.
All rails are rivers.
All rivers are papers.
Some papers are cards.
Conclusions:
I. Some cards are stations.
II. Some rivers are stations.
III. Some cards are rivers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow
Ans. (C)
29. Statements:
All windows are roofs.
All roofs are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Some plates are carpets.
Conclusions:
I. Some plates are windows.
II Some glasses are windows.
III. Some carpets are roofs.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only I and II follow
Ans. (C)
30. Statements:
All trees are jungles.
All jungles are houses.
All houses are buildings.
All buildings are villages.
Conclusions:
I. Some villages are houses.
II Some buildings are jungles
III. Some houses are trees.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (D)
31. Statements:
Some books are calendars.
No calendar is pa per.
All papers are pencils
Some pencils are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. Some chairs are books.
II. No chair is book.
III. Some pencils are calendars.
(A) None follows
(B) Only either I or II follows
(C) Only either I or II and III follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II follows
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 32—37) Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below— M 5% P U 2 A $ 4 3 Z E K 1 9 Q R I @ D 7 F Ô 8 W N 6 # V (C) J * Y
32. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth from the tight end of the above arrangement?
(A) N
(B) $
(C) 4
(D) W
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
33. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above arrangement?
(A) U
(B) D
(C) E
(D) C
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
35. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) P5A
(B) 4AE
(C) Q1K
(D) F8@
(E) VN*
Ans. (E)
37. If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end?
(A) E
(B) K
(C) Z
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 38—43) In each question below is given a group digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of Digits / Symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Digit / Symbol:
5@ 3 © 98 % b142$ # 76 *
Letter Code:
PIMAEGFJHBDNRQTU
Conditions:
(i) If the first unit is a symbol arid the last unit is an even digit both are to be coded as the code for the even digit.
(ii) If the first unit is an even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the symbol.
(iv) If both the first and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z.
38. 9 @ 374 %
(A) EIMQBF
(B) FBQMIE
(C) ZIMQBZ
(D) FIMQBF
(E) None of these
Ans. (D)
39. 29 © $ # 1
(A) HEANRD
(B) DEANRH
(C) DEANRD
(D) HEANRH
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
40. * 479 @ C
(A) UBQEIA
(B) ZBQEIA
(C ZBQEIZ
(D) ABQEIU
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
41. % 286 $ 3
(A) FDCTNF
(B) FDCTNM
(C) FCDTNM
(D) ZDGTNZ
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
42. 54 # * @ 6
(A) PBURIT
(B) BTMAEB
(C) ZTMAEB
(D) NTMAEB
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
43. $ 63 © 94
(A) NTMAEN
(B) BTMAEB
(C) ZTMAFB
(D) NTMAEB
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
44. Who is to the immediate left of D?
(A) H
(B) C
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
45. Who is second to the right of E?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) H
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
46. Who is third to the left of B?
(A) E
(B) H
(C) F
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
47. What is the position of C with respect to A?
(A) Third to the left
(B) Third to the right
(C) Fifth to the left
(D) Fourth to the right
(E) Fifth to the right
Ans. (D)
48. In which of following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons?
(A) BGC
(B) EFB
(C) DAH
(D) AEF
(E) GCD
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 49—50)
In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and U are used with the following meaning as illustrated below—
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P U Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P’ is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
49. Statements:
D # K, K @ T, T $ M, M % J
Conclusions:
I. J @ T
II. J % T
III.D @ T
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only either I or II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only either I or II and III are true
Ans. (E)
50. Statements:
R @ N © D, D $ J, J # B
Conclusions:
I. R @ J
II. J @ N
III. B @) D
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D)Only III is true
(E) Only I and III are true
Ans. (C)
Free Verbal Reasoning Online Practice Test
Test of Verbal Reasoning Solved Questions
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ORGANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
2. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter only once in each word?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (B)
3. The position of how many digits in the dumber 8247531 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
4. In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3$ and NEWS is written as $1@8. How is SOME written in that code?
(A) 8% 51
(B) 85% 8
(C) 8@ 51
(D) 8% 31
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
5. In a certain code language ‘how many books’ is written as ‘sa da na’ and ‘many more days’ is written as ‘ka pa da’. How is ‘books’ written in that code language?
(A) sa
(B) na
(C) sa or na
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
6. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as ‘PKBNXSHQ’. How is SANCTION written in that code?
(A) TBODMNHS
(B) DOBTMNHS
(C) TBODSHNM
(D) DOBTOPJU
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
7. The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
8. ‘BE’ is related to ‘GJ’ in the same way as ‘PS’ is related to……..?
(A) UY
(B) UX
(C) UZ
(D) VY
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
9. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored the highest marks?
(A) P
(B) T
(C) R
(0) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
10. Pointing to a girl, Nidhi said, ‘she is the daughter of my grandmother’s only child’. how is the girl related to Nidhi?
(A) Sister
(B) Self
(C) Cousin sister
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
11. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to the right of R who is sixteenth from the right end of the row. What is W’s position from the right end of the row?
(A) Eleventh
(B) Tenth
(C) Twelfth
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 12—14) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow— Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organized in a week from Monday to Saturday with one play each day and no play was organized on one of these days. Play D was organized before Thursday but after Monday. Play E was organized on Saturday. Play C was not organized on the first day. Play B was organized on the next day on which play C was organized. Play A was organized on
12.On which day was play B organized?
(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
13. On which day no play was organized?
(A) Monday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Data inadequate
(F) None of these
Ans. (A)
14. Which play was organized on Wednesday?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
15. If’ ‘÷’ means ‘+‘; ‘x’ means ‘- ‘, ‘ + ‘ means x’ and - means +then 24-4 ÷ 6 x 3+ 4 =?
(A) 36
(B) 24
(C) 8
(D) 4
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
16. What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 1 2 3 4 5 9 8 7 1 2 3 4 5 9 8 7 1 2 3 4 9 8
(A) 7
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
17. Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?.
(A) Q
(B) K
(C) P
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
18. Meena correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after eighteenth May but before twenty second May. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is before twenty-fourth May but after twentieth May. On which date in May was definitely their father’s birthday?
(A) Twentieth
(B) Nineteenth
(C) Eighteenth
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 19—20) Study the following information and answer the questions given below—
(i) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
(ii) ‘P x Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
(iii)’ P — Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
(iv) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
19. Which of the following means ‘M is maternal uncle of ‘T’?
(A) M ÷ K + T
(B) M x K + T
(C) M x K – T
(D) M ÷ K – T
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
20. Which of the following means ‘H’ is paternal grandfather of ‘T’?
(A) H ÷ J ÷ T
(B) T x K + H
(C) H ÷ J x T
(D) H – J + T
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 21-25) Following questions are based on the five three- digit numbers given below –
832 965 748 259 614
21. Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 4
Ans. (E)
22. Which of the following is the sum of the first and the second digits of the highest number?
(A) 11
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
23. If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number?
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3
Ans. (A)
24.If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number?
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 5
Ans. (E)
25. Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third highest number?
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 7
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 26—31) In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
26. Statements:
All stones are poles.
All poles are desks.
Some desks are nets.
All nets are days.
Conclusions:
I. Some nets are stones.
II Some desks are stones.
III. Some days are desks.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and Ill follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
27. Statements:
Some months are weeks. Some weeks are years.
All years are buses. All buses are trains.
Conclusions:
1. Some trains are weeks.
ll. Some buses are weeks.
III Some trains are months.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
28. Statements:
Some stations are rails.
All rails are rivers.
All rivers are papers.
Some papers are cards.
Conclusions:
I. Some cards are stations.
II. Some rivers are stations.
III. Some cards are rivers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow
Ans. (C)
29. Statements:
All windows are roofs.
All roofs are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Some plates are carpets.
Conclusions:
I. Some plates are windows.
II Some glasses are windows.
III. Some carpets are roofs.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only I and II follow
Ans. (C)
30. Statements:
All trees are jungles.
All jungles are houses.
All houses are buildings.
All buildings are villages.
Conclusions:
I. Some villages are houses.
II Some buildings are jungles
III. Some houses are trees.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (D)
31. Statements:
Some books are calendars.
No calendar is pa per.
All papers are pencils
Some pencils are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. Some chairs are books.
II. No chair is book.
III. Some pencils are calendars.
(A) None follows
(B) Only either I or II follows
(C) Only either I or II and III follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II follows
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 32—37) Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below— M 5% P U 2 A $ 4 3 Z E K 1 9 Q R I @ D 7 F Ô 8 W N 6 # V (C) J * Y
32. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth from the tight end of the above arrangement?
(A) N
(B) $
(C) 4
(D) W
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
33. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above arrangement?
(A) U
(B) D
(C) E
(D) C
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
35. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) P5A
(B) 4AE
(C) Q1K
(D) F8@
(E) VN*
Ans. (E)
37. If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end?
(A) E
(B) K
(C) Z
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 38—43) In each question below is given a group digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of Digits / Symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Digit / Symbol:
5@ 3 © 98 % b142$ # 76 *
Letter Code:
PIMAEGFJHBDNRQTU
Conditions:
(i) If the first unit is a symbol arid the last unit is an even digit both are to be coded as the code for the even digit.
(ii) If the first unit is an even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the symbol.
(iv) If both the first and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z.
38. 9 @ 374 %
(A) EIMQBF
(B) FBQMIE
(C) ZIMQBZ
(D) FIMQBF
(E) None of these
Ans. (D)
39. 29 © $ # 1
(A) HEANRD
(B) DEANRH
(C) DEANRD
(D) HEANRH
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
40. * 479 @ C
(A) UBQEIA
(B) ZBQEIA
(C ZBQEIZ
(D) ABQEIU
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
41. % 286 $ 3
(A) FDCTNF
(B) FDCTNM
(C) FCDTNM
(D) ZDGTNZ
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
42. 54 # * @ 6
(A) PBURIT
(B) BTMAEB
(C) ZTMAEB
(D) NTMAEB
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
43. $ 63 © 94
(A) NTMAEN
(B) BTMAEB
(C) ZTMAFB
(D) NTMAEB
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
44. Who is to the immediate left of D?
(A) H
(B) C
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
45. Who is second to the right of E?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) H
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
46. Who is third to the left of B?
(A) E
(B) H
(C) F
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
47. What is the position of C with respect to A?
(A) Third to the left
(B) Third to the right
(C) Fifth to the left
(D) Fourth to the right
(E) Fifth to the right
Ans. (D)
48. In which of following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons?
(A) BGC
(B) EFB
(C) DAH
(D) AEF
(E) GCD
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 49—50)
In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and U are used with the following meaning as illustrated below—
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P U Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P’ is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
49. Statements:
D # K, K @ T, T $ M, M % J
Conclusions:
I. J @ T
II. J % T
III.D @ T
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only either I or II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only either I or II and III are true
Ans. (E)
50. Statements:
R @ N © D, D $ J, J # B
Conclusions:
I. R @ J
II. J @ N
III. B @) D
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D)Only III is true
(E) Only I and III are true
Ans. (C)
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