Free general Aptitude test including Reasoning
Free General Aptitude Test Containing Objective Questions
1. The thief made a clean breast of his crime. The phrase ‘made a clean breast of’ means
(A) cleaned his chest
(B) fought for
(C) faced bravely
(D) confessed without hiding anything
2. The mother of the victim left………. in her efforts to get the culprit convicted.
The blank can be filled by.
(A) resigned to her fate
(B) home
(C) no stone unturned
(D) right
3. Complete the following proverb
“Rome was not built in a
(A) day
(B) week
(C) month
(D) year
4. ‘Phobia’ means
(A) hobby
(B) payment made before using a service
(B) study of something
C) fear of something
(D) craze
5. ‘Post-Paid’ means
(A) a post office term
(B) payment made before using a service
(C) payment made after using a service
(D) payment made at the time of using the service
6. Complete the phrase : “As faithful as a
(A) cat
(B) donkey
(C) dog
(D) fox
7. A doctor who specializes in the treatment of children is called?
(A)pedestrain
(B)pediatrician
(C)pedologist
(D) pedigree
8 The police are ………………….the theft in the office. The blank can be filled by.
(A) instigating
(B)interrogating
(C)investigating
(D)introspecting
9.The Supervisor needs a ……..of scissors for opening the envelope.
(A)pair
(B) pear
(C)pare
(D) twin
10. The collective noun for a group of elephants is?
(A)group
(B) gang
(C)pack
(D) herd
11. How many minutes before 12 Noon is it when it is 10:35 a.m.?
(A)86
(B) 87
(C)85
(D) 84
12. Statements:
All scientists are fools.
All fools are intelligent.
Conclusions:
I. All scientists are intelligent.
II. All intelligent people are scientists.
III. All intelligent people are fools.
IV. Some intelligent people would be scientists.
(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only IV is correct
(C) Only I and IV are correct
(D) Only II and IV are correct
13. Ramesh walked 10 metres towards north, took a left turn and walked 75 metres, again took a left turn and walked 100 metres and stopped walking.
What direction was he facing when he stopped walking?
(A) north
(B) south
(C) north-west
(D) south-east
14. Pick the odd one out
(A)fruit
(B) flower
(C)leaf
(D) petal
15. Pick the odd one out
(A)cuckoo
(B) crow
(C)bat
(D) parrot
16. Pick the odd one out
(A)gold
(B) copper
(C)silver
(D) brass
17. Identify the city which is the odd one out?
(A) Patna
(B) Ranchi
(C) Raipur
(D) Jamshedpur
18.The leading producer of tin in the world is?
(A) Bolivia
(B) Brazil
(C)Indonesia
(D) Malaysia
19. Which is the odd one out in the following?
(A) Triangle
(C) Circle
(B) Rectangle
(D) Sphere
20. If we are viewing an angle of 3° through a magnifying glass capable of magnifying 3 times, how big would the angle look?
(A)9°
(B) 30°
(C)6°
(D) 12°
21. 300 bananas were purchased at As. 128 a hundred. What should be the selling price per dozen, if a profit of Rs. 66 is to be made?
(A)Rs. 15
(B) Rs.18
(C)Rs. 20
(D) Rs 21
22. Choose the correct algebraic statement for the following
“A number is equal to 3 less than three times another number.”
(A) y=3x—3
(B) y=3x/3
(C) y=3x+5
(D) 3y=3x—3
23. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 18 (remainder 0)?
(A) 245678
(B) 2456789
(C) 2445678
(D) 2455678
24. A 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 cm brick weights 64 kg. What would be the weight of a brick of size 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm?
(A)32 kg
(B)8 kg
(C)16kg
(D) 1 kg
25. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand at 6.30 p.m.?
(A)0°
(B)15°
(C)30°
(D)195°
26. Mr. Dhoni has 5 pairs Of white gloves and 5 pairs of black gloves, which he keeps in a box. If he picks 3 gloves at random, what is the probability that he will get a matching pair?
(A)0.5
(B) 0.75
(C)0.9
(D)1
27. If the length and breadth of a room are 48 feet and 24 feet respectively, and the space diagonal (one corner on ceiling to opposite corner on floor) is 56 feet, what is the height of the room?
(A)l4 feet
(B) 15 feet
(C)16 feet
(D) l7 feet
28. What is the next number in the following sequence?
0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,34
(A)50
(B) 55
(C)53
(D) 51
29. ‘34’ is related to 12’ in the same way as ‘59’ is related to?
(A)95
(B) 54
(C)45
(D) 17
30.If 20 x X = 20 + X, what is the
value of X?
(A) 19/20
(B)18/20
(C) 18/19
(D)20/19
31. Which neighboring country of India embraced democracy recently to become the world’s youngest democracy?
(A)Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) Pakistan
(D) Sri Lanka
32. Which of the following took over the Anglo Dutch Steel Company Corus?
(A) Arcelor Mittal
(B) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(C) Tata Steel
(D) Jindal Steel
33. For International payments Indian currency is linked to?
(A) Gold Standard
(B) International Oil Price
(C) American Dollars
(D) Pound Sterling
34. Which organization, headed by Indian environmentalist Dr. A. K. Pachauri has been awarded
Nobel Peace Prize in 2007?
(A) International Global Warming
(B) International Environment Panel
(C) International Panel on Pollution Control
(D) International Panel on Climate change
35. Which day is observed as the World Habitat Day?
(A) March27
(B) September 30
(C) October 5
(0) October 2
36. Which game will be played for the first time in 2010 Asian Games?
(A) Twenty-20 Cricket
(B) Kabaddi
(C) Kho-Kho
(D) Gilli Danda
37. Reserve Bank of India is a?
(A) Private Bank
(B) Commercial Bank
(C) Foreign Bank
(D) Central Bank
38.Which of the following rivers have almost the same point of origin?
(A) Brahmaputra and Indus
(B) Brahmaputra and Ganga
(C) Godavari and Krishna
(0) Indus and Gangs
39. What is the main advantage of transplantation method of sowing rice?
(A) It helps in early harvesting
(B) The draining of water from the field before harvesting is made easy
(C) It is helpful in achieving an economical use of water and a higher yield of grain
(D) It ensures maximum utilization of land
40.All of the following rivers flow into or join the Ganges on its left side except?
(A)Gomti
(B) Gandak
(C)Son
(0) Kosi
41. As the height above sea level increases, the temperature?
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) First decreases and then increases
(D) Change of height has no effect on temperature
42. Which of the two planets listed below are closer to the sun than the earth?
(A) Mercury and Mars
(B) Mercury and Venus
(C) Venus and Mars
(D) Jupiter and Saturn
43. Which of the following countries is not in the continent of Asia?
(A)Lebanon
(B) Libya
(C)Japan
(D) Singapore
44.The land masses of India and Sri Lanka are connected by which of the following straits?
(A) Bass Strait
(B) Bering Strait
(C) Malacca Strait
(D) Palk Strait
45. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Manipur—Imphal
(B) Meghalaya—Shillong
(C) Mizoram—Agartala
(0) Nagaland—Kohima
46. From North to South, the correct sequence of the following sea ports is?
(A) Chennai, Tuticorin, Vishakapatnam, Paradip
(B) Paradip, Chennai, Vishakapatnam, Tuticorin
(C) Paradip, Vishakapatnarn, Tuticorin, Chennai
(D) Paradip, Vishakapatnam, Chennai, Tuticorin
47. The International Date Line is located in the?
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean
48. Which Bank has recently changed its name to Axis Bank?
(A) HDFC Bank
(B) Citi Bank
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) UTI Bank
49. What is the expanded form of MICA?
(A) Magnetic ink Character Recognition
(B) Magnetic Ink Code Reader
(C) Magnetic Inline Character Reader
(D) Magnetic Inline Code Reader
50. Which sector contributes most towards the GDP of India?
(A) Iron and Steel Industry
(B) Railway
(C) Cotton Textile industry
(D) Service Sector
Answers:
1 D
2 C
3 A
4 C
5 C
6 C
7 B
8 C
9 A
10 D
11 C
12 C
13 B
14 A
15 C
16 D
17 D
18 D
19 D
20 B
21 B
22 A
23 C
24 D
25 B
26 D
27 C
28 B
29 C
30 D
31 A
32 C
33 C
34 D
35 C
36 C
37 D
38 A
39 C
40 C
41 A
42 B
43 B
44 D
45 C
46 D
47 A
48 D
49 A
50 D
Thursday, June 9, 2011
Central Police Forces (CPF) reasoning practice test
Central Police Forces (CPF) reasoning practice test
Central Police Force CPF Model Paper Sample Paper
1. Which of the following fish is bread exclusively in the cold regions of India?
1 Catla
2. Tinca
3. Bhekti
4. Trout
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 1 and 4
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
Ans. (3)
2. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?
1. The Chairman of Finance Commission
2. The Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission
3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory
Choose the answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2
(3) l and 3
(4) 1 and 3
Ans. (1)
3. Two persons start walking at a steady pace of 3km/hour from a road intersection along two roads that make an angle of 60° with ach other. What will be the (shortest) distance separating them at the end of 20 minutes?
(1)3km
(2)2km
(3) 1.5km
(4) 1 km
Ans. (4)
4. Who among the following became the Prime Minister India without being earlier the Chief Minister of a State?
1. Morarji Desai
2. Charan Singh
3. V. P. Singh
4. Chandrasekhar
5. P. V. Narasimha Rao
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1, 2 and 4
(2) 2, 3 and 5
(3) 2 only
(4) 4 only
Ans. (4)
5. In the sequence 462, 420, 380, X, 306, X stands for:
(1) 352
(2) 342
(3) 332
(4) 322
Ans. (2)
6. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through:
(1) glass
(2) vacuum
(3) water
4) air
Ans. (4)
7. Which one of the following is a membrane that protects the developing embryo from desiccation?
(1) Amnion
(2) Allantois
(3) Chorion
(4) Yolk sac
Ans. (1)
8. E.T.A is terrorist organization in:
(1) Cyprus
(2) Sri Lanka
(3) Spain
(4) South Africa
Ans. (4)
9, Which one of the following is the most important reason for the establishment of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thumba?
(1) The sea is near to the place In, the East, West and South directions
(2) It is a place near to a city in India, which is nearest to the: Geographic Equator
(3) It is situated on the Geomagnetic Equator
(4) Outer Space near Thumba exhibits queer atmospheric phenomena
Ans. (3)
10. Match List-I with List-II and the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Nuclear) List-II (States Power Station)
A. Kota 1. U. P
B. Tarapur 2. Gujarat
C. Kakrapara 3. Maharashtra
D. Narora 4. Rajasthan
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (2)
Directions: (Q. 11-20): The following 10 (Ten) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements. carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of R
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
11. Assertion (A): Upanis1adas were compiled towards the end of the Vedic periods
Reason (R): The Upanishadic thought centers, round the idea of soul (Atman), no sacrifice.
Ans. (1)
12. Assertion (A): Chandragupta instigated revolt against Greek Satraps.
Reason (R): Chandragupta had visited the camp to Alexander.
Ans. (2)
13 Assertion (A) : A lock of Einstein’s hair if scientists could locate it and extract its DNA, could help in producing another Einstein, by cloning.
Reason (R): The DNA extracted from the cell of an embryo at an early stage of development, can be transferred to individual eggs which in turn can be implanted into the uterus of a surrogate mother to give birth to an identical offspring?
Ans. (3)
14. Assertion (A): In ancient India, the states of women, Idealized in literature and art, underwent steady deterioration through the ages.
Reason (R): Though monogamy. was the ideal, polygamy was often the practice among the higher classes of society.
Ans. (2)
15. Assertion (A): The U.S.A. reemerged as India’s single largest import source in the early nineties.
Reason (R): With swift political developments in the erstwhile Soviet Union, India
gradua1ly began to rely on the U.S.A. for its defense requirements.
Ans. (3)
16. Assertion. (A): The monsoonal rainfall decreases as one goes towards the west and north-west in, the Ganga plain.
Reason (R): The moisture- bearing monsoonal winds go higher up as one moves up in the Ganga plain.
Ans. (3)
17. Assertion (A): The sign of Krishnadeva Raya ‘s the period of Vijayanagar greatest success when Its army was always victorious
Reason (R): Krishnadeva Raya’s army and navy were trained by Portuguese Generals appointed by him.
Ans. (3)
18. Assertion (A): General Dyer fired at Jallianwala Bagh crowd without any warning and till the ammunition was exhausted.
Reason (R): This shooting was not only to boost the morale of the army, but also to strike terror in Punjab.
Ans. (1)
19. Assertion (A): In India, the political parties which formed the governments represented the majority of seats secured In the elections of the House of the People at the Centre and the Legislative Assemblies in the States but not the majority of votes.
Reason (R) : The elections based on the majr1ty vote system decide the result on the basis of relative majority of votes secured.
Ans. (1)
20. Assertion (A): Nizamuddin Auliya approved the conduct of a Sufi in releasing his woman slave and allowing her to return to her Hindu parent.
Reason (R): This was strictly in. accordance with the Muslim law.
Ans. (3)
21. Which of the following statements about the Dunkel draft is/are correct?
1. It is mandatory for the Government of India to accept all its proposals in all the sectors
2. In the field of agriculture, the main proposal is to cut agricultural subsidies
3. In the field of textiles, it reiterates the operation of the multifibre agreement
4. The proposals have already been accepted by the Parliament
Select the correct answer form the codes given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) l and 2
(3) 1, 2 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
Ans. (2)
22. Consider the following statements:
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline.
2. Gujarat has he highest number of Airports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 Only
(2) only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
23. The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is
(1) 2 km
(2) 3 cm
(3) 4 km
(4) 5 km
Ans. (4)
24. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as ‘municipal relations’?
(1) Center’s control of the State in the legislative sphere
(2) Center’s control of the State In financial matters
(3) Center’s control of the State in the administrative sector
(4) Center’s control of the State in the Planning process
Ans. (2)
25. The main constituents of pearl are:
(1) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate
(2) aragonite and conchiolin
(3) ammonium sulphate and sodium carbonate
(4) calcium oxide and ammonium chloride
Ans. (1)
26. The acceleration due to gravity of a castrophic earthquake will be
(1) > 550 cm/sec2
(2) > 750 cm/sec2
(3) > 950 cm/sec2
(4) > 980 cm/sec2
Ans. (3)
27. A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the:
(1) lack of antigen in his blood
(2) lack of antibodies in his blood
(3) lack of both antigens and antibodies in his blood
(4) presence of antibodies in his blood
Ans. (2)
28. Which one of the following polymers is wide1y used for making bullet proof material?
(1) Polyvinyl chloride
(2) Polyamides
(3) Polyethylene
(4) Polycarbonates
Ans. (2)
29. Consider the following statements:
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline.
2. Gujarat has he highest number of Airports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 Only
(2) only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
30. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Dev Samaj’?
(1) Vallabhbhai Patel
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji
(3) Sivanaryan Agnihotri
(4) Ramakrishna Paramhansa
Ans. (3)
31. The name of the periodical among the following published by Mahatma Gandhi during his stay in South Africa:
(1) Navjiwan
(2) India Gazette
(3) Afrikaner
(4) Indian Opinion
Ans. (4)
32. In which of the following did Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel play a leading role?
(1) Bijolia Movement
(2) Dandi March
(3) Textile Mill Workers Strike at Ahmedabad
(4) Bardoli Satyagraha
Ans. (4)
33. What is common among Madam Bhikaji Cama, M. Barkatulla, V.V.S. Layer and M.N. Roy?
(1) All of them were leading members of the International Communist movement
(2) M. Barkatulla was the Prime Minister and the rest were ministers in the Provisional Government of Press India established by a group of revolutionaries at Kabul
(3) All of them were among the prominent revolutionaries outside India operating in different countries during the Freedom Movement
(4) All of them were accused in the case relating to the throwing of a bomb on Lord Hardinge
Ans. (3)
34 Which one of the following important trade centers of ancient India was on the trade route connecting Kalyana with Vengi?
(1) Tagara
(2) Sripura
(3) Tripuri
(4) Tamralipti
Ans. (1)
35. Which one of the following regions of Asia is experiencing the highest annual growth rate of population?
(1) South Asia
(2) South-East Asia
(3) Central Asia
(4) West Asia
Ans. (1)
36. An air bubble in water will act like a:
(1) Convex mirror
(2) Convex lens
(3) Concave mirror
(4) Concave lens
Ans. (4)
37. The great Asian river Mekong does not run through:
(1) China
(2) Malaysia
(3) Cambodia
(4) Laos
Ans. (2)
38. The square root of the cube of this number is the cube of its square root. It is not 1 and it is less than 6.What is it?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
Ans. (3)
39. Sound waves travel at 300 m/s. Sound produced at a point is heard by a person after 5 seconds while the same sound is heard by another person after 6 seconds. What could be the maximum and minimum distances between the two persons?
(1) 1.8 km, 0.15 km
(2) 2.2 km, 0.20km
(3) 2.8 km. 0.25 km
(4) 3.3 km, 0.3 km
Ans. (4)
40. The Mansabdari System introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system followed in:
(1) Afghanistan
(2) Turkey
(3) Mongolia
(4) Persia
Ans. (3)
41. The first to start a joint stock to trade with India were the:
(1) Portuguese
(2) Dutch
(3) French
(4) Danish
Ans. (2)
42. Which one of the following upheavals took place in Bengal immediately after the Revolt of 1857?
(1) Sanyasi Rebellion
(2) Santhal Rebellion
(3) Indigo Disturbances
(4) Pabna Disturbances
Ans. (3)
43. The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are:
(1) Buddhist
(2) Buddhist and Jain
(3) Hindu and Jam
(4) Hindu, Buddhist and Jain
Ans. (4)
44. Which one of the following usages was a post-Vedic development?
(1) Dharma-Artha-Kama -Moksha
(2) Brahmana – Kshatriya –Vaishya – Shudra
(3) Brahmacharya- Grihastashrama -Vanaprastha- Sanyasa
(4) Indra- Surya –Rudra –Marut
Ans. (2)
45. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States?
(1) Stamp Duties
(2) Passenger and goods tax
(3) Estate Duty
(4) Taxes on Newspaper
Ans. (1)
46. l0 % of 2O + 20 % of 10 =?
(1) 10 % of 20
(2) 20 % of 10
(3) 1 % of 200
(4) 2 % of 200
Ans. (4)
47. Which of the following are correctly matched?
A
Establishment of Manufacturing
B
Year C
Place
1 Setting up of the first cotton mill
2. Manufacture of the first machine made paper
3. Setting up of the first cement factory 1854
1870
1904 Bombay
Near Calcutta Madras
Choose the correct answer from the Codes given below:
(1) 1 and 2
(2) l and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1and 3
Ans. (3)
48. Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is correct?
(1) Exit Poll is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding in whose favour they had exercised their franchise
(2) ‘Exit Poll’ and Opinion Poll are one and the same
(3) Exit Poll is a device through which result of voting can be most exactly predicted
(4) ‘Exit Poll’ is an administrative device made recently by the Chief Election Commission to prevent impersonation
Ans. (3)
49. The Uniting for Peace Resolution adopted by the U.N. has:
(1) enhanced the powers of the General Assembly in a comprehensive way
(2) reduced the powers of the General Assembly made
(3) made no difference to the powers of the General Assembly.
(4) empowered the General Assembly to act in specific situations in matters of peace and security
Ans. (4)
50. Which one of the following soil types of India is restored infertile by the presence of
excess iron?
(1) Desert sand
(2) Alluvial
(3) Podzolic
(4) Lateritic
Ans. (4)
Central Police Force CPF Model Paper Sample Paper
1. Which of the following fish is bread exclusively in the cold regions of India?
1 Catla
2. Tinca
3. Bhekti
4. Trout
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 1 and 4
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
Ans. (3)
2. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?
1. The Chairman of Finance Commission
2. The Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission
3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory
Choose the answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2
(3) l and 3
(4) 1 and 3
Ans. (1)
3. Two persons start walking at a steady pace of 3km/hour from a road intersection along two roads that make an angle of 60° with ach other. What will be the (shortest) distance separating them at the end of 20 minutes?
(1)3km
(2)2km
(3) 1.5km
(4) 1 km
Ans. (4)
4. Who among the following became the Prime Minister India without being earlier the Chief Minister of a State?
1. Morarji Desai
2. Charan Singh
3. V. P. Singh
4. Chandrasekhar
5. P. V. Narasimha Rao
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) 1, 2 and 4
(2) 2, 3 and 5
(3) 2 only
(4) 4 only
Ans. (4)
5. In the sequence 462, 420, 380, X, 306, X stands for:
(1) 352
(2) 342
(3) 332
(4) 322
Ans. (2)
6. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through:
(1) glass
(2) vacuum
(3) water
4) air
Ans. (4)
7. Which one of the following is a membrane that protects the developing embryo from desiccation?
(1) Amnion
(2) Allantois
(3) Chorion
(4) Yolk sac
Ans. (1)
8. E.T.A is terrorist organization in:
(1) Cyprus
(2) Sri Lanka
(3) Spain
(4) South Africa
Ans. (4)
9, Which one of the following is the most important reason for the establishment of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thumba?
(1) The sea is near to the place In, the East, West and South directions
(2) It is a place near to a city in India, which is nearest to the: Geographic Equator
(3) It is situated on the Geomagnetic Equator
(4) Outer Space near Thumba exhibits queer atmospheric phenomena
Ans. (3)
10. Match List-I with List-II and the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Nuclear) List-II (States Power Station)
A. Kota 1. U. P
B. Tarapur 2. Gujarat
C. Kakrapara 3. Maharashtra
D. Narora 4. Rajasthan
Code:
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (2)
Directions: (Q. 11-20): The following 10 (Ten) items consist of two statements: one labelled as the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements. carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of R
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
11. Assertion (A): Upanis1adas were compiled towards the end of the Vedic periods
Reason (R): The Upanishadic thought centers, round the idea of soul (Atman), no sacrifice.
Ans. (1)
12. Assertion (A): Chandragupta instigated revolt against Greek Satraps.
Reason (R): Chandragupta had visited the camp to Alexander.
Ans. (2)
13 Assertion (A) : A lock of Einstein’s hair if scientists could locate it and extract its DNA, could help in producing another Einstein, by cloning.
Reason (R): The DNA extracted from the cell of an embryo at an early stage of development, can be transferred to individual eggs which in turn can be implanted into the uterus of a surrogate mother to give birth to an identical offspring?
Ans. (3)
14. Assertion (A): In ancient India, the states of women, Idealized in literature and art, underwent steady deterioration through the ages.
Reason (R): Though monogamy. was the ideal, polygamy was often the practice among the higher classes of society.
Ans. (2)
15. Assertion (A): The U.S.A. reemerged as India’s single largest import source in the early nineties.
Reason (R): With swift political developments in the erstwhile Soviet Union, India
gradua1ly began to rely on the U.S.A. for its defense requirements.
Ans. (3)
16. Assertion. (A): The monsoonal rainfall decreases as one goes towards the west and north-west in, the Ganga plain.
Reason (R): The moisture- bearing monsoonal winds go higher up as one moves up in the Ganga plain.
Ans. (3)
17. Assertion (A): The sign of Krishnadeva Raya ‘s the period of Vijayanagar greatest success when Its army was always victorious
Reason (R): Krishnadeva Raya’s army and navy were trained by Portuguese Generals appointed by him.
Ans. (3)
18. Assertion (A): General Dyer fired at Jallianwala Bagh crowd without any warning and till the ammunition was exhausted.
Reason (R): This shooting was not only to boost the morale of the army, but also to strike terror in Punjab.
Ans. (1)
19. Assertion (A): In India, the political parties which formed the governments represented the majority of seats secured In the elections of the House of the People at the Centre and the Legislative Assemblies in the States but not the majority of votes.
Reason (R) : The elections based on the majr1ty vote system decide the result on the basis of relative majority of votes secured.
Ans. (1)
20. Assertion (A): Nizamuddin Auliya approved the conduct of a Sufi in releasing his woman slave and allowing her to return to her Hindu parent.
Reason (R): This was strictly in. accordance with the Muslim law.
Ans. (3)
21. Which of the following statements about the Dunkel draft is/are correct?
1. It is mandatory for the Government of India to accept all its proposals in all the sectors
2. In the field of agriculture, the main proposal is to cut agricultural subsidies
3. In the field of textiles, it reiterates the operation of the multifibre agreement
4. The proposals have already been accepted by the Parliament
Select the correct answer form the codes given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) l and 2
(3) 1, 2 and 4
(4) 3 and 4
Ans. (2)
22. Consider the following statements:
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline.
2. Gujarat has he highest number of Airports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 Only
(2) only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
23. The average elevation of Tibetan Plateau above sea level is
(1) 2 km
(2) 3 cm
(3) 4 km
(4) 5 km
Ans. (4)
24. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as ‘municipal relations’?
(1) Center’s control of the State in the legislative sphere
(2) Center’s control of the State In financial matters
(3) Center’s control of the State in the administrative sector
(4) Center’s control of the State in the Planning process
Ans. (2)
25. The main constituents of pearl are:
(1) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate
(2) aragonite and conchiolin
(3) ammonium sulphate and sodium carbonate
(4) calcium oxide and ammonium chloride
Ans. (1)
26. The acceleration due to gravity of a castrophic earthquake will be
(1) > 550 cm/sec2
(2) > 750 cm/sec2
(3) > 950 cm/sec2
(4) > 980 cm/sec2
Ans. (3)
27. A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the:
(1) lack of antigen in his blood
(2) lack of antibodies in his blood
(3) lack of both antigens and antibodies in his blood
(4) presence of antibodies in his blood
Ans. (2)
28. Which one of the following polymers is wide1y used for making bullet proof material?
(1) Polyvinyl chloride
(2) Polyamides
(3) Polyethylene
(4) Polycarbonates
Ans. (2)
29. Consider the following statements:
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline.
2. Gujarat has he highest number of Airports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) 1 Only
(2) only
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
30. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Dev Samaj’?
(1) Vallabhbhai Patel
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji
(3) Sivanaryan Agnihotri
(4) Ramakrishna Paramhansa
Ans. (3)
31. The name of the periodical among the following published by Mahatma Gandhi during his stay in South Africa:
(1) Navjiwan
(2) India Gazette
(3) Afrikaner
(4) Indian Opinion
Ans. (4)
32. In which of the following did Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel play a leading role?
(1) Bijolia Movement
(2) Dandi March
(3) Textile Mill Workers Strike at Ahmedabad
(4) Bardoli Satyagraha
Ans. (4)
33. What is common among Madam Bhikaji Cama, M. Barkatulla, V.V.S. Layer and M.N. Roy?
(1) All of them were leading members of the International Communist movement
(2) M. Barkatulla was the Prime Minister and the rest were ministers in the Provisional Government of Press India established by a group of revolutionaries at Kabul
(3) All of them were among the prominent revolutionaries outside India operating in different countries during the Freedom Movement
(4) All of them were accused in the case relating to the throwing of a bomb on Lord Hardinge
Ans. (3)
34 Which one of the following important trade centers of ancient India was on the trade route connecting Kalyana with Vengi?
(1) Tagara
(2) Sripura
(3) Tripuri
(4) Tamralipti
Ans. (1)
35. Which one of the following regions of Asia is experiencing the highest annual growth rate of population?
(1) South Asia
(2) South-East Asia
(3) Central Asia
(4) West Asia
Ans. (1)
36. An air bubble in water will act like a:
(1) Convex mirror
(2) Convex lens
(3) Concave mirror
(4) Concave lens
Ans. (4)
37. The great Asian river Mekong does not run through:
(1) China
(2) Malaysia
(3) Cambodia
(4) Laos
Ans. (2)
38. The square root of the cube of this number is the cube of its square root. It is not 1 and it is less than 6.What is it?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
Ans. (3)
39. Sound waves travel at 300 m/s. Sound produced at a point is heard by a person after 5 seconds while the same sound is heard by another person after 6 seconds. What could be the maximum and minimum distances between the two persons?
(1) 1.8 km, 0.15 km
(2) 2.2 km, 0.20km
(3) 2.8 km. 0.25 km
(4) 3.3 km, 0.3 km
Ans. (4)
40. The Mansabdari System introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system followed in:
(1) Afghanistan
(2) Turkey
(3) Mongolia
(4) Persia
Ans. (3)
41. The first to start a joint stock to trade with India were the:
(1) Portuguese
(2) Dutch
(3) French
(4) Danish
Ans. (2)
42. Which one of the following upheavals took place in Bengal immediately after the Revolt of 1857?
(1) Sanyasi Rebellion
(2) Santhal Rebellion
(3) Indigo Disturbances
(4) Pabna Disturbances
Ans. (3)
43. The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are:
(1) Buddhist
(2) Buddhist and Jain
(3) Hindu and Jam
(4) Hindu, Buddhist and Jain
Ans. (4)
44. Which one of the following usages was a post-Vedic development?
(1) Dharma-Artha-Kama -Moksha
(2) Brahmana – Kshatriya –Vaishya – Shudra
(3) Brahmacharya- Grihastashrama -Vanaprastha- Sanyasa
(4) Indra- Surya –Rudra –Marut
Ans. (2)
45. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States?
(1) Stamp Duties
(2) Passenger and goods tax
(3) Estate Duty
(4) Taxes on Newspaper
Ans. (1)
46. l0 % of 2O + 20 % of 10 =?
(1) 10 % of 20
(2) 20 % of 10
(3) 1 % of 200
(4) 2 % of 200
Ans. (4)
47. Which of the following are correctly matched?
A
Establishment of Manufacturing
B
Year C
Place
1 Setting up of the first cotton mill
2. Manufacture of the first machine made paper
3. Setting up of the first cement factory 1854
1870
1904 Bombay
Near Calcutta Madras
Choose the correct answer from the Codes given below:
(1) 1 and 2
(2) l and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1and 3
Ans. (3)
48. Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is correct?
(1) Exit Poll is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding in whose favour they had exercised their franchise
(2) ‘Exit Poll’ and Opinion Poll are one and the same
(3) Exit Poll is a device through which result of voting can be most exactly predicted
(4) ‘Exit Poll’ is an administrative device made recently by the Chief Election Commission to prevent impersonation
Ans. (3)
49. The Uniting for Peace Resolution adopted by the U.N. has:
(1) enhanced the powers of the General Assembly in a comprehensive way
(2) reduced the powers of the General Assembly made
(3) made no difference to the powers of the General Assembly.
(4) empowered the General Assembly to act in specific situations in matters of peace and security
Ans. (4)
50. Which one of the following soil types of India is restored infertile by the presence of
excess iron?
(1) Desert sand
(2) Alluvial
(3) Podzolic
(4) Lateritic
Ans. (4)
Reasoning For bank PO Exams
Reasoning For bank PO Exams
Test of Reasoning: Bank PO Exam SOlved paper
1. Among A, B, C, D and E, E is shorter than D but taller than B who is taller than C and A is taller than E. If all are standing according to their heights and we start counting from the tallest who would be fourth?
(1) C
(2) B
(3) E
(4) Cannot be determined as the data is insufficient.
Ans. (2)
2. A man is facing. south. He turns 135° in the anticlockwise direction and then 180? in the clockwise direction. The direction he is facing now is:
(1) North-east
(2) North-west
(3) South-east
(4) South-west
Ans. (4)
3. Among five friends:
Mangla is taller to Neela but as tall as Pushpa.
Asha is taller to Sapna but not as tall as Neela. In this group who is the shortest?
(1) Mangla
(2) Sapna
(3) Pushpa
(4) Asha
Ans. (2)
4. The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of income of B and D. The highest income is of:
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans. (2)
5. In a class of 60 students. where the girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kama1, the number of boys in rank after him is:
(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 12
(4) 13
Ans. (3)
6. If X and Y are brothers Z is sister of X, P is brother of Q, and Q is daughter of Y. Then who is the uncle of P?
(1) Z
(2) X
(3)Q
(4) Y
Ans. (2)
7. A set of figures carrying certain numbers is given
. Assuming that the numbers in each figure follow a similar pattern, the missing number is:
(1) 19
(2) 23
(3) 25
(4) 31
Ans. (4)
8. Same positions of dice are shown below:
What is the number opposite to 4?
(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 1
Ans. (4)
Directions: (9-13): A management company is to form a 5 member group to undertake a new project. The team must contain two finance expert, one accountant and two marketing experts. A, B and C can work as finance experts C, D and E can work as accountants. F, G and H can work as marketing experts. A and C prefer to work with each other on the same group. E prefers to work only if F works.
9. Which is a possible team if all preferences are respected?
(1) A, B, C, D, F
(2) A, C, D, E, F
(3) A, B, C, F, G
(4) B, C, D F, G
Ans. (1)
10. If A is chosen as a member of the team and all preferences are respected, which one of the following must be true?
(1) C must work as finance expert
(2) Any of the three marketing experts can be included
(3) Neither D nor E can be included
(4) F must be included
Ans. (2)
11. Which choice of members is impossible if all preferences are respected?
(1) A and B as finance experts, C as accountant
(2) B and C as finance experts
(3) G and H as marketing experts
(4) A and C as finance experts, F and H as marketing experts
Ans. (2)
12. How many different groups are possible if all preferences are respected?
(1) 5
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 13
Ans. (1)
13. Which person/persons must be chosen as part of any group if all preferences are respected?
l. A
2. E
3. F
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2 only
(3) 3 only
(4) 2 and 3
Ans. (1)
Directions (14-18): Read the following seven statements to solve the next five Items.
(i) Five boys B1 B2 B3 B4 and B5 and five girls G1 G2 G3 G4 and G5 are sitting on ten chairs (not necessarily in that order). The boys are in the odd numbered seats starting from the left while, each girl sits to the right of her friend amongst the boys.
(ii) B4 is G4’s friend
(iii) G5 is not at the right end of the row and her friend is not at the left end of the row.
(iv) B3 is one seat from the right end of the row.
(v) G5’s friend is seated next to the right of G2.
(vi) B2 and his friend occupy the middle pairs of seats.
(vii) G4 sits next to B2
14. G3’s friend may be
(1) B1 or B2
(2) B1, B3 or B5
(3) B1, B2 or B3
(4) B2 or B5
Ans. (2)
15. Which of the following lists five persons who are sitting adjacent to one another, from left to right?
(1) B2, 2 B1, G5 B
(2) B4, 04. 02., Q5
(3) G2, B2, G4. B4, G1 or G3
(4) B4, G5, 82. G2,131 or B5
Ans. (4)
16. In order to determine the position of G2, it is necessary to use how many of the seven statements given above?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
Ans. (4)
17. Which of the following could be determined exactly if the position of either B1 or B5 were given?
(1) The identity of B1’s friend or B5’s friend but, not both
(2) Only the identity of B1’s friend
(3) Only the identity of B5’s friend
(4) Who is sitting to B4’s left
Ans. (1)
18. Which of the following cannot be determined on the basis of the available information?
1. Who occupies the seat farthest to the left ?
2. Who occupies the seat farthest to the right?
3. Which other girls are nearest toG2?
Which the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 1 only
(3) 2 only
(4) 2 and 3
Ans. (1)
Directions (18-21): Each face of cube is painted with a different colour a carries a different number (from 1 to 6)
(i) The face with the number 1 is opposite to the face with the number 4, while the face with the number 2 is opposite to the face with the number 6.
(ii) The orange face has number 1.
(iii) The face opposite to the orange face is black and has number 4.
(iv) When the orange face is facing an observer, the top face is pink and has number 3 on it.
(v) When the grey face is placed facing the observer the number 1 is on the top, number 2 is on the right side and the left face is blue-colored.
(vi) White and blue colours are on opposite faces.
18. Which of the following colours are on the four faces adjacent to the grey-colored face?
(1) White, Blue, Black, Pink
(2) White, Orange, Black, Blue
(3) Blue, Black, Pink, White
(4) Cannot be determined
Ans. (2)
19. Number 6 is carried by the face having which colour?
(1) Blue
(2) Pink
(3) Grey
(4) White
Ans. (1)
20. When the orange face is facing the observer and the number 2 is on his right, which one of the following numbers will be at the top?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
Ans. (3)
21. Colours comprising which one of the following pairs are not opposite to each other?
(1) Orange – Black
(2) White – Blue
(3) Pink – Grey
(4) Black - White
Ans. (4)
22. There are five friends — P. Q, R, S and T. P is younger to Q, T is younger to R and S. both P is as old as R, P is younger to as many as those who are younger to S.
Who among the five friends is the eldest?
(1) S
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) Cannot be ascertained with the given data
Ans. (2)
23. A, B, C, D, and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R. S and T (not necessarily in that order). Each one of them comes from a different city.
Further, it is given
1. B and. C do not belong to
2. B and E do not belong to P and R
3. A and C do not belong to R, S and T.
4. D and E do not belong to Q and T.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) C belongs to P
(2) D belongs to R
(3) A belongs to Q
(4) B belongs to S
Ans. (4)
24. Q is the son of P. S is the son of Q. U is the mother of R. T is the spouse of Q. P is the father of R but R is not his son. V is the spouse of R.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) S is the grandson of P
(2) S is the grandson of U
(3) V is the son-in-law of P
(4) V is the son of U
Ans. (4)
25. Along chain having 100 identical steel links is to be pulled from its two ends by a force of 3000 newtons. The chain is elongated by adding another 50 links to it.
Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(1) The force induced in each link will be equal to 20 newtons .
(2) The force induced In each link will be equal to 30 newtons
(3) The force induced in each link will be equal to 3000 newtons
(4) The force induced in each link cannot be determined unless its dimensions are
given
Ans. (3)
Test of Reasoning: Bank PO Exam SOlved paper
1. Among A, B, C, D and E, E is shorter than D but taller than B who is taller than C and A is taller than E. If all are standing according to their heights and we start counting from the tallest who would be fourth?
(1) C
(2) B
(3) E
(4) Cannot be determined as the data is insufficient.
Ans. (2)
2. A man is facing. south. He turns 135° in the anticlockwise direction and then 180? in the clockwise direction. The direction he is facing now is:
(1) North-east
(2) North-west
(3) South-east
(4) South-west
Ans. (4)
3. Among five friends:
Mangla is taller to Neela but as tall as Pushpa.
Asha is taller to Sapna but not as tall as Neela. In this group who is the shortest?
(1) Mangla
(2) Sapna
(3) Pushpa
(4) Asha
Ans. (2)
4. The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of income of B and D. The highest income is of:
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Ans. (2)
5. In a class of 60 students. where the girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kama1, the number of boys in rank after him is:
(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 12
(4) 13
Ans. (3)
6. If X and Y are brothers Z is sister of X, P is brother of Q, and Q is daughter of Y. Then who is the uncle of P?
(1) Z
(2) X
(3)Q
(4) Y
Ans. (2)
7. A set of figures carrying certain numbers is given
. Assuming that the numbers in each figure follow a similar pattern, the missing number is:
(1) 19
(2) 23
(3) 25
(4) 31
Ans. (4)
8. Same positions of dice are shown below:
What is the number opposite to 4?
(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 1
Ans. (4)
Directions: (9-13): A management company is to form a 5 member group to undertake a new project. The team must contain two finance expert, one accountant and two marketing experts. A, B and C can work as finance experts C, D and E can work as accountants. F, G and H can work as marketing experts. A and C prefer to work with each other on the same group. E prefers to work only if F works.
9. Which is a possible team if all preferences are respected?
(1) A, B, C, D, F
(2) A, C, D, E, F
(3) A, B, C, F, G
(4) B, C, D F, G
Ans. (1)
10. If A is chosen as a member of the team and all preferences are respected, which one of the following must be true?
(1) C must work as finance expert
(2) Any of the three marketing experts can be included
(3) Neither D nor E can be included
(4) F must be included
Ans. (2)
11. Which choice of members is impossible if all preferences are respected?
(1) A and B as finance experts, C as accountant
(2) B and C as finance experts
(3) G and H as marketing experts
(4) A and C as finance experts, F and H as marketing experts
Ans. (2)
12. How many different groups are possible if all preferences are respected?
(1) 5
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 13
Ans. (1)
13. Which person/persons must be chosen as part of any group if all preferences are respected?
l. A
2. E
3. F
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1) 1 only
(2) 1 and 2 only
(3) 3 only
(4) 2 and 3
Ans. (1)
Directions (14-18): Read the following seven statements to solve the next five Items.
(i) Five boys B1 B2 B3 B4 and B5 and five girls G1 G2 G3 G4 and G5 are sitting on ten chairs (not necessarily in that order). The boys are in the odd numbered seats starting from the left while, each girl sits to the right of her friend amongst the boys.
(ii) B4 is G4’s friend
(iii) G5 is not at the right end of the row and her friend is not at the left end of the row.
(iv) B3 is one seat from the right end of the row.
(v) G5’s friend is seated next to the right of G2.
(vi) B2 and his friend occupy the middle pairs of seats.
(vii) G4 sits next to B2
14. G3’s friend may be
(1) B1 or B2
(2) B1, B3 or B5
(3) B1, B2 or B3
(4) B2 or B5
Ans. (2)
15. Which of the following lists five persons who are sitting adjacent to one another, from left to right?
(1) B2, 2 B1, G5 B
(2) B4, 04. 02., Q5
(3) G2, B2, G4. B4, G1 or G3
(4) B4, G5, 82. G2,131 or B5
Ans. (4)
16. In order to determine the position of G2, it is necessary to use how many of the seven statements given above?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
Ans. (4)
17. Which of the following could be determined exactly if the position of either B1 or B5 were given?
(1) The identity of B1’s friend or B5’s friend but, not both
(2) Only the identity of B1’s friend
(3) Only the identity of B5’s friend
(4) Who is sitting to B4’s left
Ans. (1)
18. Which of the following cannot be determined on the basis of the available information?
1. Who occupies the seat farthest to the left ?
2. Who occupies the seat farthest to the right?
3. Which other girls are nearest toG2?
Which the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 1 only
(3) 2 only
(4) 2 and 3
Ans. (1)
Directions (18-21): Each face of cube is painted with a different colour a carries a different number (from 1 to 6)
(i) The face with the number 1 is opposite to the face with the number 4, while the face with the number 2 is opposite to the face with the number 6.
(ii) The orange face has number 1.
(iii) The face opposite to the orange face is black and has number 4.
(iv) When the orange face is facing an observer, the top face is pink and has number 3 on it.
(v) When the grey face is placed facing the observer the number 1 is on the top, number 2 is on the right side and the left face is blue-colored.
(vi) White and blue colours are on opposite faces.
18. Which of the following colours are on the four faces adjacent to the grey-colored face?
(1) White, Blue, Black, Pink
(2) White, Orange, Black, Blue
(3) Blue, Black, Pink, White
(4) Cannot be determined
Ans. (2)
19. Number 6 is carried by the face having which colour?
(1) Blue
(2) Pink
(3) Grey
(4) White
Ans. (1)
20. When the orange face is facing the observer and the number 2 is on his right, which one of the following numbers will be at the top?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
Ans. (3)
21. Colours comprising which one of the following pairs are not opposite to each other?
(1) Orange – Black
(2) White – Blue
(3) Pink – Grey
(4) Black - White
Ans. (4)
22. There are five friends — P. Q, R, S and T. P is younger to Q, T is younger to R and S. both P is as old as R, P is younger to as many as those who are younger to S.
Who among the five friends is the eldest?
(1) S
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) Cannot be ascertained with the given data
Ans. (2)
23. A, B, C, D, and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R. S and T (not necessarily in that order). Each one of them comes from a different city.
Further, it is given
1. B and. C do not belong to
2. B and E do not belong to P and R
3. A and C do not belong to R, S and T.
4. D and E do not belong to Q and T.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) C belongs to P
(2) D belongs to R
(3) A belongs to Q
(4) B belongs to S
Ans. (4)
24. Q is the son of P. S is the son of Q. U is the mother of R. T is the spouse of Q. P is the father of R but R is not his son. V is the spouse of R.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) S is the grandson of P
(2) S is the grandson of U
(3) V is the son-in-law of P
(4) V is the son of U
Ans. (4)
25. Along chain having 100 identical steel links is to be pulled from its two ends by a force of 3000 newtons. The chain is elongated by adding another 50 links to it.
Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(1) The force induced in each link will be equal to 20 newtons .
(2) The force induced In each link will be equal to 30 newtons
(3) The force induced in each link will be equal to 3000 newtons
(4) The force induced in each link cannot be determined unless its dimensions are
given
Ans. (3)
Mental Aptitude MCQ
Mental Aptitude MCQ
Mental Ability Test Free objective test
1. Metro Rail was launched in December 2002 in New Delhi between which two Stations?
(a) Shahadra – Tis Hazari
(b) I.S.B.T -Shahadra
(c) Centra1 Secretariat- I.S.B.T.
(d) Tis Hazari -Central Secretariat
Ans. (a)
2. Which is the Capital of Dadra and Nagar Haveli?
(a) Kavaratti
(b) Port Blair
(c) Daman
(d) Silvassa
Ans. (b)
3. Durand Line is the International Boundary between—
(a) India and Pakistan
(b) Pakistan and Afghanistan
(c) India and China
(d) U.S.A. and Mexico
Ans. (b)
4. Panchatantra was written by—
(a) Jaidev
(b) Ved Vyas
(c) Bhavbhuti
(d) Vishnu Sharma
Ans. (d)
5. The headquarter of North Western Railway zone is—
(a) Jabalpur
(b) Bikaner
(c) Jaipur
(d) New Delhi
Ans. (c)
6. J&K leader , Sri Mufti Mohammad Sayeed belongs to which political party?
(a) People’s Democratic Party
(b) Congress
(c) Jammu Kashmir
(d) All Party Hurriyat Conference
Ans. (a)
7. Famous Indian Cartoonist, who died in December, 2002 was—
(a) R.K. Laxman
(b) Pran
(c) Abu Abraham
(d) Sudhir Dar
Ans. (a)
8. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is standing between F and C, A is standing between E and D, F is standing to the left of D. Who is standing between A and F.
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
Ans. (c)
9. P walks forward 10 m and then walks 10 m right. Again turning to the left and again he walks 5, 15 and 15m respectively.
At present time how far is he standing from his starting place?
(a) 20 m
(b) 23 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 5 m
Ans. (d)
10. Which name will come at last in telephone directory?
(a) Sita
(b) Sikand
(c) Sarveshwar
(d) Shyam
Ans. (a)
11. If in word ‘DISTURBANCE’ first letter is interchanged with last letter, second with tenth and others according to this rule are changed then in new word which 1ette will come after ‘T’?
(a) I
(b) S
(c) U
(d) N
Ans. (b)
12. In .a class of 49 students Ramesh’s rank is 18th. What is his rank from bottom?
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 31
(d) 32
Ans. (d)
13. In the numbers from 100 to 1000 how, many times digit ‘1’ comes at tens place?
(a) 9
(b) 900
(c) 10
(d) 90
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 14—16): Six slabs of a cube is coloured as black, brown, red and white and blue that
1. Red is in front of black
2. Green is in between red and black
3. Blue is near to white
4. Brown is near to blue
5. Red is in bottom
Ans. (a)
14. .Which colour is, in front of brown?
(a) White
(b) Red
(c) Green
(d) Blue
Ans. (d)
15. Which colour is in front of green?
(a) Black
(b) White
(c) Brown
(d) Blue
Ans. (d)
16. Which three colours of the following meet on the corner of cube?
(a) Red, Black, Green
(b) Black, White, Blue
(c) White, Green, Red
(d) Brown, White, Blue
Ans. (b)
17. Kailash indicating to an old ‘man told, “His son is my Son’s uncle.” How is Kailash related to that old man?
(a) Brother
(b) Uncle
(c) Son
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)
18. If X is the brother of the son of” Y’s son, how is X related to Y?
(a) Son
(b) Brother
(c) Nephew
(d) Grandson
Ans. (d)
19. If x means ÷ , means x, ÷ means + and + means —, then value of
(3—15÷l9) x 8+6?
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) – 1
Ans. (c)
20. Arrange the fol1owing in a logical order.
(1) Col1eege
(2) Child
(3) Salary
(4) School
(5) Employment
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
(c) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
(d) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
Ans. (b)
21. Day after tomorrow is my birthday. On the same day next week is a festival. Today is. Sunday. What will be the day just after festival?
(a) Tuesday
(b) Sunday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Thursday
Ans. (c)
Directions (Q. 22—26): Find the missing terms.(?) in the series.
22. 3, 7, 15, ?, 63, 127
(a) 30
(c) 47
(b) 31
(d) 52
Ans. (b0
23. 0, ?, 8, 15, 24
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 5
Ans. (a)
24. 6, 12, 21,?, 48
(a) 38
(b) 40
(c) 45
(d) 33
Ans. (d)
25. 7, 11, 13, 17,?, 23, 25
(a) 19
(b) 20
(c) 21
(d) 18
Ans. (a)
26. 2, 8, 14, 24, 34, 48?
(a) 58
(b) 62
(c) 64
(d) 66
Ans. (b)
Directions (Q. 27—31): Find the odd one:
27. Bear, kola-drink, Soda water, Milk
(a) Bear
(b) Kola-drink
(c) Soda, water
(d) Milk
Ans. (d)
28. Snake, Lizard, Whale fish, Crocodile
(a) Snake
(b) Lizard
(c) Whale
(d) Crocodile
Ans. (b)
29. Ranchi, Bhopal, Nagpur, Bangalore
(a) Ranchi
(b) Bhopal
(c) Nagpur
(d) Bangalore
Ans. (c)
30. 1236, 2346, 3456, 4566, 5686
(a) 2346
(b) 5686
(c) 4566
(d) 1236
Ans. (b)
31. Fingers, Palms, Wrist, Knee
(a) Fingers
(b) Palms
(c) Wrist
(d) Knee
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 32—36): Three words have been given in the following questions. First two words to the left : : is related in a way. Find that word from the given alternatives who in relation as same to the right of
32. Carpenter : Saw : Tailor ?
(a) Cloth
(b) Needle
(c) Sewing
(d) Measurement
Ans. (b)
33. Butter : Milk : Book ?
(a) Paper
(c) Printing
(b) Chapter
(d) Writer
Ans. (b)
34. Court : Justice : School :
(a) Teacher
(b) Headmaster
(c) Student
(d) Education
Ans. (d)
35. Laugh : Enjoyment : Weep: ?
(a) Baby
(b) Punishment
(c) Remorse
(d) Grief
Ans. (d)
36. Patrolling : Safety : Insurance:?
(a) Money
(b) Protection
(c) Policy
(d) Finance
Ans. (b)
37. Study the trend in columns and identify the missing (?) number
6 8 15
3 2 5
4 3 ?
8 12 9
(a) 2
(b) 11
(c) 3
(d) 6
Ans. (c)
38. If in a code language PAINT is written as 74128 and EXCEL as 93596, then how ACCEPT will he written in that language?
(a) 455978
(b) 544978
(c) 554978
(d) 733961
Ans. (a)
39. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7, then what is the code number for GOVERNMENT?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 6
Ans. (b)
40. If in a language eraser is called box, box is called pencil, pencil is called sharpener and sharpener is called bag, then With what a child will write n that language?
(a) Eraser
(b) Box
(c) Pencil
(d Sharpener
Ans. (d)
41. If in language finger is called toe, toe is called foot, foot is called thumb, thumb is called ankle, ankle is called palm and palm is called knee, then in that language, what an illiterate man will put to mark his signature?
(a) Thumb
(b Ankle
(c) Knee
(d) Toe
Ans. (b)
Directions (Q. 42—46): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow :
1. Five friends P, Q, R, . S and T traveled to five different cities
Chennai, Calcutta, Delhi,
Bangalore and Hyderabad by five different modes of transport Bus, Train, Aeroplane, Car and Boat from Mumbai.
2. The person who traveled to Delhi did not travel by boat.
3. R went to Bangalore by car and Q went to Calcutta by aeroplane.
4. S traveled by boat whereas T traveled by train.
5. Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.
42. Which of the following combinations of persons and mode of transport is not correct?
(a) P-Bus
(b) Q-Aeroplane
(c) R-Car
(d T-Boat
Ans. (d)
43. Which of the following destinations is correct for ‘S’?
(a) Chennai
(b) Calcutta
(c) Delhi
(d) Data inadequate
Ans. (a)
44. Which of the following combination place and mode of transport is not correct?
(a) Delhi-Bus
(b) Calcutta-Aeroplane
(c) Hyderabad-Bus
(d) Bangalore-Car
Ans. (a)
45. The person travelling to Delhi went by which transport?
(a) Bus
(b) Train
(c) Aeroplane
(d) Car
Ans. (b)
46. Who travelled to Delhi?
(a) P
(b) S
(c) T
(d) Data inadequate
Ans. (c)
47. A person travels by his bicycle a distance of 50 km. He travels with the speed of 12.5 km/hr. After every 12.5 km., he takes a rest for 20 minutes. How much time will he take to complete the distance?
(a) 4 hours 20 minutes
(b) 5 hours 20 minutes
(c) 5 hours
(d) 6 hours
Ans. (c)
48. A and B walks on a circular path whose circumference is 35 km. They started walking from same place in the same direction with a uniform speed of ‘A’ is 4 km. per hour and speed of ‘B’ is 5 km. per hour. After how much time will they meet again?
(a) 15 hours
(b) 21 hours
(c) 35 hours
(d) 42 hours
Ans. (c)
49. Radius of a wheel is 6.5 m. How many spin will it take to complete the distance of 11 km?
(a) 28000
(b) 7000
(c) 4000
(d) 5500
Ans. (b)
50. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km. per hour?
(a) 7.2
(b) 3.6
(c) 10
(d) 8.4
Ans. (a)
Mental Ability Test Free objective test
1. Metro Rail was launched in December 2002 in New Delhi between which two Stations?
(a) Shahadra – Tis Hazari
(b) I.S.B.T -Shahadra
(c) Centra1 Secretariat- I.S.B.T.
(d) Tis Hazari -Central Secretariat
Ans. (a)
2. Which is the Capital of Dadra and Nagar Haveli?
(a) Kavaratti
(b) Port Blair
(c) Daman
(d) Silvassa
Ans. (b)
3. Durand Line is the International Boundary between—
(a) India and Pakistan
(b) Pakistan and Afghanistan
(c) India and China
(d) U.S.A. and Mexico
Ans. (b)
4. Panchatantra was written by—
(a) Jaidev
(b) Ved Vyas
(c) Bhavbhuti
(d) Vishnu Sharma
Ans. (d)
5. The headquarter of North Western Railway zone is—
(a) Jabalpur
(b) Bikaner
(c) Jaipur
(d) New Delhi
Ans. (c)
6. J&K leader , Sri Mufti Mohammad Sayeed belongs to which political party?
(a) People’s Democratic Party
(b) Congress
(c) Jammu Kashmir
(d) All Party Hurriyat Conference
Ans. (a)
7. Famous Indian Cartoonist, who died in December, 2002 was—
(a) R.K. Laxman
(b) Pran
(c) Abu Abraham
(d) Sudhir Dar
Ans. (a)
8. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is standing between F and C, A is standing between E and D, F is standing to the left of D. Who is standing between A and F.
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
Ans. (c)
9. P walks forward 10 m and then walks 10 m right. Again turning to the left and again he walks 5, 15 and 15m respectively.
At present time how far is he standing from his starting place?
(a) 20 m
(b) 23 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 5 m
Ans. (d)
10. Which name will come at last in telephone directory?
(a) Sita
(b) Sikand
(c) Sarveshwar
(d) Shyam
Ans. (a)
11. If in word ‘DISTURBANCE’ first letter is interchanged with last letter, second with tenth and others according to this rule are changed then in new word which 1ette will come after ‘T’?
(a) I
(b) S
(c) U
(d) N
Ans. (b)
12. In .a class of 49 students Ramesh’s rank is 18th. What is his rank from bottom?
(a) 18
(b) 19
(c) 31
(d) 32
Ans. (d)
13. In the numbers from 100 to 1000 how, many times digit ‘1’ comes at tens place?
(a) 9
(b) 900
(c) 10
(d) 90
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 14—16): Six slabs of a cube is coloured as black, brown, red and white and blue that
1. Red is in front of black
2. Green is in between red and black
3. Blue is near to white
4. Brown is near to blue
5. Red is in bottom
Ans. (a)
14. .Which colour is, in front of brown?
(a) White
(b) Red
(c) Green
(d) Blue
Ans. (d)
15. Which colour is in front of green?
(a) Black
(b) White
(c) Brown
(d) Blue
Ans. (d)
16. Which three colours of the following meet on the corner of cube?
(a) Red, Black, Green
(b) Black, White, Blue
(c) White, Green, Red
(d) Brown, White, Blue
Ans. (b)
17. Kailash indicating to an old ‘man told, “His son is my Son’s uncle.” How is Kailash related to that old man?
(a) Brother
(b) Uncle
(c) Son
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)
18. If X is the brother of the son of” Y’s son, how is X related to Y?
(a) Son
(b) Brother
(c) Nephew
(d) Grandson
Ans. (d)
19. If x means ÷ , means x, ÷ means + and + means —, then value of
(3—15÷l9) x 8+6?
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) – 1
Ans. (c)
20. Arrange the fol1owing in a logical order.
(1) Col1eege
(2) Child
(3) Salary
(4) School
(5) Employment
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
(c) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
(d) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
Ans. (b)
21. Day after tomorrow is my birthday. On the same day next week is a festival. Today is. Sunday. What will be the day just after festival?
(a) Tuesday
(b) Sunday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Thursday
Ans. (c)
Directions (Q. 22—26): Find the missing terms.(?) in the series.
22. 3, 7, 15, ?, 63, 127
(a) 30
(c) 47
(b) 31
(d) 52
Ans. (b0
23. 0, ?, 8, 15, 24
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 5
Ans. (a)
24. 6, 12, 21,?, 48
(a) 38
(b) 40
(c) 45
(d) 33
Ans. (d)
25. 7, 11, 13, 17,?, 23, 25
(a) 19
(b) 20
(c) 21
(d) 18
Ans. (a)
26. 2, 8, 14, 24, 34, 48?
(a) 58
(b) 62
(c) 64
(d) 66
Ans. (b)
Directions (Q. 27—31): Find the odd one:
27. Bear, kola-drink, Soda water, Milk
(a) Bear
(b) Kola-drink
(c) Soda, water
(d) Milk
Ans. (d)
28. Snake, Lizard, Whale fish, Crocodile
(a) Snake
(b) Lizard
(c) Whale
(d) Crocodile
Ans. (b)
29. Ranchi, Bhopal, Nagpur, Bangalore
(a) Ranchi
(b) Bhopal
(c) Nagpur
(d) Bangalore
Ans. (c)
30. 1236, 2346, 3456, 4566, 5686
(a) 2346
(b) 5686
(c) 4566
(d) 1236
Ans. (b)
31. Fingers, Palms, Wrist, Knee
(a) Fingers
(b) Palms
(c) Wrist
(d) Knee
Ans. (d)
Directions (Q. 32—36): Three words have been given in the following questions. First two words to the left : : is related in a way. Find that word from the given alternatives who in relation as same to the right of
32. Carpenter : Saw : Tailor ?
(a) Cloth
(b) Needle
(c) Sewing
(d) Measurement
Ans. (b)
33. Butter : Milk : Book ?
(a) Paper
(c) Printing
(b) Chapter
(d) Writer
Ans. (b)
34. Court : Justice : School :
(a) Teacher
(b) Headmaster
(c) Student
(d) Education
Ans. (d)
35. Laugh : Enjoyment : Weep: ?
(a) Baby
(b) Punishment
(c) Remorse
(d) Grief
Ans. (d)
36. Patrolling : Safety : Insurance:?
(a) Money
(b) Protection
(c) Policy
(d) Finance
Ans. (b)
37. Study the trend in columns and identify the missing (?) number
6 8 15
3 2 5
4 3 ?
8 12 9
(a) 2
(b) 11
(c) 3
(d) 6
Ans. (c)
38. If in a code language PAINT is written as 74128 and EXCEL as 93596, then how ACCEPT will he written in that language?
(a) 455978
(b) 544978
(c) 554978
(d) 733961
Ans. (a)
39. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7, then what is the code number for GOVERNMENT?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 6
Ans. (b)
40. If in a language eraser is called box, box is called pencil, pencil is called sharpener and sharpener is called bag, then With what a child will write n that language?
(a) Eraser
(b) Box
(c) Pencil
(d Sharpener
Ans. (d)
41. If in language finger is called toe, toe is called foot, foot is called thumb, thumb is called ankle, ankle is called palm and palm is called knee, then in that language, what an illiterate man will put to mark his signature?
(a) Thumb
(b Ankle
(c) Knee
(d) Toe
Ans. (b)
Directions (Q. 42—46): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow :
1. Five friends P, Q, R, . S and T traveled to five different cities
Chennai, Calcutta, Delhi,
Bangalore and Hyderabad by five different modes of transport Bus, Train, Aeroplane, Car and Boat from Mumbai.
2. The person who traveled to Delhi did not travel by boat.
3. R went to Bangalore by car and Q went to Calcutta by aeroplane.
4. S traveled by boat whereas T traveled by train.
5. Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.
42. Which of the following combinations of persons and mode of transport is not correct?
(a) P-Bus
(b) Q-Aeroplane
(c) R-Car
(d T-Boat
Ans. (d)
43. Which of the following destinations is correct for ‘S’?
(a) Chennai
(b) Calcutta
(c) Delhi
(d) Data inadequate
Ans. (a)
44. Which of the following combination place and mode of transport is not correct?
(a) Delhi-Bus
(b) Calcutta-Aeroplane
(c) Hyderabad-Bus
(d) Bangalore-Car
Ans. (a)
45. The person travelling to Delhi went by which transport?
(a) Bus
(b) Train
(c) Aeroplane
(d) Car
Ans. (b)
46. Who travelled to Delhi?
(a) P
(b) S
(c) T
(d) Data inadequate
Ans. (c)
47. A person travels by his bicycle a distance of 50 km. He travels with the speed of 12.5 km/hr. After every 12.5 km., he takes a rest for 20 minutes. How much time will he take to complete the distance?
(a) 4 hours 20 minutes
(b) 5 hours 20 minutes
(c) 5 hours
(d) 6 hours
Ans. (c)
48. A and B walks on a circular path whose circumference is 35 km. They started walking from same place in the same direction with a uniform speed of ‘A’ is 4 km. per hour and speed of ‘B’ is 5 km. per hour. After how much time will they meet again?
(a) 15 hours
(b) 21 hours
(c) 35 hours
(d) 42 hours
Ans. (c)
49. Radius of a wheel is 6.5 m. How many spin will it take to complete the distance of 11 km?
(a) 28000
(b) 7000
(c) 4000
(d) 5500
Ans. (b)
50. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km. per hour?
(a) 7.2
(b) 3.6
(c) 10
(d) 8.4
Ans. (a)
Free Online Mental Aptitude test
Free Online Mental Aptitude test
IQ and Aptitude Tests For Exams
1. Ashok starts to walk from the point P. He went 10 km towards North and 6 km toward
South. After this he went 3 km towards East. How far is he now from P?
(A) 4 km
(B) 5 km
(C) 7 km
(D) 3 km
Ans. (B)
2. Complete the following series after choosing the correct option—
c b a a – b a – a c c – a a b b a a a –c b a
(A) cabc
(B) babc
(C) bacc
(D) abcb
Ans. (B)
3. If it was Friday on 15th Aug. 2003, which day of the week will be on 15th Aug. 2005?
(A) Saturday
(B) Sunday
(C) Monday
(D) Thursday
Ans. (C)
4. In the following sequence there are how many such ‘6’ which are preceded by 8 and
followed by 3?
7 8 6 3 2 7 1 8 6 8 9 8 6 1 8 6 3 1 8
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans. (B)
5. What is the value of—
T + K – M ?
(A) S
(B) R
(C) Q
(D) P
Ans. (B)
6. In a class of 50 students, 36 students study Mathematics and 28 study Biology. The number of students studying both Mathematics and Biology will be—
(A) 22
(B) 14
(C) 30
(D) 12
Ans. (B)
7. If a man writes ‘QDGFHS’ for ‘TIGHER’, then in this way what will be write for
‘MONKEY’?
(A) XDHNMK
(B) YDJMLK
(C) XDJMNL
(D) XCHNMK
Ans. (C)
8. What is necessary for a nursing home?
(A) Nurse
(B) Ambulance
(C) Doctor
(D) Medicine
Ans. (C)
9. If 854 = 12, 467 = 38, then 683 =?
(A) 21
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 35
Ans. (C)
10. In a code if
Se ker he = hot good tea
Pek cha ker = good thunder pure
Nep cha he = fresh pure tea
Then in the same code how ‘thunder tea’ will be written?
(A) Pek he
(B) Cha he
(C) Pek ker
(D) Cha ker
Ans. (A)
11. The word formed in same sequence with the letter of the word ‘INFOMATION’ is—
(A) NATION -
(B) FORMAT
(C) RATIONAL
(D) ONION
Ans. (B)
12. Choose the correct number from the options?
015 : 00015: : 103:?
(A) 0103
(B) 0O103
(C) 1003
(D) 1030
Ans. (B)
13. Which one of the following will be seen same in the mirror?
(A) AUNUA
(B) OVCACV
(C) SVWVS
(D) TMAMT
Ans. (D)
14. What is the angle between the two hands of clock when it is 7 : 30?
(A) 45°
(B) 35°
(C) 325°
(D) 30°
Ans. (A)
15. A clock shows nine-half when seen in the mirror. What is the actual time?
(A) 3:30
(B) 2:30
(C) 6:10
(D) 1:30
Ans. (B)
16. A boy used in a picture Blue colour for Red, Red for Yellow, Yellow for Green and Green for Blue. What will be the colour of leaves?
(A) Green
(B) Blue
(C) Red
(D) Yellow
Ans. (D)
17. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
1. Leaves 2. Branch
3. Flower 4. Tree
5. Fruit
(A) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
(B) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
(D) 4, 2, 1,3, 5
Ans. (D)
18. If ‘+‘ means ‘x’, ‘—‘ means ‘÷‘, ‘x’ means f—’, and ‘÷‘ means ‘+‘, then what is the value of—
9 + 8 ÷ 8 – 4 x 9
(A) 65
(B) 39
(C) 27
(D) 11
Ans. (A)
19. If ‘P’ means ‘+‘, ‘Q’ means ‘—‘, ‘R means ‘x’ and ‘S’ means ‘÷‘ which of the following equation is not correct?
(A) 1 R 5 = 16 Q 15 P 4
(B) 14 P S 10 = 7 R 2 Q 12
(C) 11 R 10 S 10 = 16 P 2 Q 7
(D) 3 Q 9 P 6 = 8 R 3 Q 24
Ans. (B)
20. In an examination if a student looses mark for the wrong answer and gets 1 mark for the correct answer. If he got 30 marks for solving54 questions, then how many questions were correct?
(A) 30
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 42
Ans. (B)
21. In a colony, each of the 20% families have two TV sets, 30% of the rest families have three TV sets. Each of the remaining families has one TV set. Which of the following statement is true’?
(A) 80% families have at least one TV set
(B) 50% families have two TV sets (C) 56% families have one TV set
(D) 30% families have three TV sets
Ans. (C)
22. Arrange the following words according to dictionary—
1. Bird 2. Bilk
3. Bill 4. Billion
5. Birth
Code:
(A) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
(C) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(D) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
Ans. (B)
23. If S — T means ‘5’ is the wife of ‘T’, S + T means ‘S’ is the daughter of ‘T’ and S ÷ T means ‘S’ is the son of ‘T’. What will M + J + K means?
(A) ‘K’ is the father of ‘M’
(B) ‘M’ is the grand-daughter of ‘K’
(C) ‘J’ is wife of ‘K’
(D) ‘K’ and ‘M’ are brothers
Ans. (B)
24. S x T means ‘S’ is brother of ‘T’ and S + T means ‘S’ is father of ‘T’, which of the following shows ‘0’ is the cousin of ‘R’ ?
(A) R x T + O
(B) R + T x O
(C) R x O x T
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
25. If ‘P + Q’ means P is the husband of Q, P ÷ Q means ‘P’ is the sister of Q, and ‘P x Q’ means ‘P’ is son of Q, which of the following shows ‘A’ is daughter of ‘B’ ?
(A) A ÷ D x B
(B) D x B + C ÷A
(C) B ÷ C x A
(D) C x B ÷A
Ans. (A)
IQ and Aptitude Tests For Exams
1. Ashok starts to walk from the point P. He went 10 km towards North and 6 km toward
South. After this he went 3 km towards East. How far is he now from P?
(A) 4 km
(B) 5 km
(C) 7 km
(D) 3 km
Ans. (B)
2. Complete the following series after choosing the correct option—
c b a a – b a – a c c – a a b b a a a –c b a
(A) cabc
(B) babc
(C) bacc
(D) abcb
Ans. (B)
3. If it was Friday on 15th Aug. 2003, which day of the week will be on 15th Aug. 2005?
(A) Saturday
(B) Sunday
(C) Monday
(D) Thursday
Ans. (C)
4. In the following sequence there are how many such ‘6’ which are preceded by 8 and
followed by 3?
7 8 6 3 2 7 1 8 6 8 9 8 6 1 8 6 3 1 8
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans. (B)
5. What is the value of—
T + K – M ?
(A) S
(B) R
(C) Q
(D) P
Ans. (B)
6. In a class of 50 students, 36 students study Mathematics and 28 study Biology. The number of students studying both Mathematics and Biology will be—
(A) 22
(B) 14
(C) 30
(D) 12
Ans. (B)
7. If a man writes ‘QDGFHS’ for ‘TIGHER’, then in this way what will be write for
‘MONKEY’?
(A) XDHNMK
(B) YDJMLK
(C) XDJMNL
(D) XCHNMK
Ans. (C)
8. What is necessary for a nursing home?
(A) Nurse
(B) Ambulance
(C) Doctor
(D) Medicine
Ans. (C)
9. If 854 = 12, 467 = 38, then 683 =?
(A) 21
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 35
Ans. (C)
10. In a code if
Se ker he = hot good tea
Pek cha ker = good thunder pure
Nep cha he = fresh pure tea
Then in the same code how ‘thunder tea’ will be written?
(A) Pek he
(B) Cha he
(C) Pek ker
(D) Cha ker
Ans. (A)
11. The word formed in same sequence with the letter of the word ‘INFOMATION’ is—
(A) NATION -
(B) FORMAT
(C) RATIONAL
(D) ONION
Ans. (B)
12. Choose the correct number from the options?
015 : 00015: : 103:?
(A) 0103
(B) 0O103
(C) 1003
(D) 1030
Ans. (B)
13. Which one of the following will be seen same in the mirror?
(A) AUNUA
(B) OVCACV
(C) SVWVS
(D) TMAMT
Ans. (D)
14. What is the angle between the two hands of clock when it is 7 : 30?
(A) 45°
(B) 35°
(C) 325°
(D) 30°
Ans. (A)
15. A clock shows nine-half when seen in the mirror. What is the actual time?
(A) 3:30
(B) 2:30
(C) 6:10
(D) 1:30
Ans. (B)
16. A boy used in a picture Blue colour for Red, Red for Yellow, Yellow for Green and Green for Blue. What will be the colour of leaves?
(A) Green
(B) Blue
(C) Red
(D) Yellow
Ans. (D)
17. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
1. Leaves 2. Branch
3. Flower 4. Tree
5. Fruit
(A) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
(B) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
(D) 4, 2, 1,3, 5
Ans. (D)
18. If ‘+‘ means ‘x’, ‘—‘ means ‘÷‘, ‘x’ means f—’, and ‘÷‘ means ‘+‘, then what is the value of—
9 + 8 ÷ 8 – 4 x 9
(A) 65
(B) 39
(C) 27
(D) 11
Ans. (A)
19. If ‘P’ means ‘+‘, ‘Q’ means ‘—‘, ‘R means ‘x’ and ‘S’ means ‘÷‘ which of the following equation is not correct?
(A) 1 R 5 = 16 Q 15 P 4
(B) 14 P S 10 = 7 R 2 Q 12
(C) 11 R 10 S 10 = 16 P 2 Q 7
(D) 3 Q 9 P 6 = 8 R 3 Q 24
Ans. (B)
20. In an examination if a student looses mark for the wrong answer and gets 1 mark for the correct answer. If he got 30 marks for solving54 questions, then how many questions were correct?
(A) 30
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 42
Ans. (B)
21. In a colony, each of the 20% families have two TV sets, 30% of the rest families have three TV sets. Each of the remaining families has one TV set. Which of the following statement is true’?
(A) 80% families have at least one TV set
(B) 50% families have two TV sets (C) 56% families have one TV set
(D) 30% families have three TV sets
Ans. (C)
22. Arrange the following words according to dictionary—
1. Bird 2. Bilk
3. Bill 4. Billion
5. Birth
Code:
(A) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
(C) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(D) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
Ans. (B)
23. If S — T means ‘5’ is the wife of ‘T’, S + T means ‘S’ is the daughter of ‘T’ and S ÷ T means ‘S’ is the son of ‘T’. What will M + J + K means?
(A) ‘K’ is the father of ‘M’
(B) ‘M’ is the grand-daughter of ‘K’
(C) ‘J’ is wife of ‘K’
(D) ‘K’ and ‘M’ are brothers
Ans. (B)
24. S x T means ‘S’ is brother of ‘T’ and S + T means ‘S’ is father of ‘T’, which of the following shows ‘0’ is the cousin of ‘R’ ?
(A) R x T + O
(B) R + T x O
(C) R x O x T
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
25. If ‘P + Q’ means P is the husband of Q, P ÷ Q means ‘P’ is the sister of Q, and ‘P x Q’ means ‘P’ is son of Q, which of the following shows ‘A’ is daughter of ‘B’ ?
(A) A ÷ D x B
(B) D x B + C ÷A
(C) B ÷ C x A
(D) C x B ÷A
Ans. (A)
Free reasoning objective type questions
Free reasoning objective type questions
Free online practice objective Questions for exams: Reasoning
1. If HARD is coded as 1357 and SOFT is
coded as 2468, what do the figures 21448 stand for?
(A) SHOP
(B) SCHOOL
(C) SHOOT
(D) SHOOL
Ans: C
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A)215
(B) 143
(C)247
(D) 91
Ans : A
3. If MNPQWXFG stand for the word LOVE, how would you encode the word HATE?
(A) FGBCVUFG
(B) FGBCUVCD
(C) IJBGVUFG
(D) IJBCUVFG
Ans: D
4. In a row of thirty five children, M is fifteenth from the right end and there are ten children between M and R. What is R’s position from the left end of the row?
(A) 15th
(B) 5th
(C) 30th
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : D
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A)Gold
(B) Nickel
(C) Platinum
(D) Diamond
Ans : D
6. If SEND-MONEY is coded as QCLB-KMLCW, how would you encode ‘MOST-
SECRET’?
Write the first and last letters only.
(A) R,K
(B) O,V
(C) K,R
(D) V,U
Ans: B
7. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RBAE using each letter only once in each word?
(A)Three
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) More than three
Ans : A
8. If TOUR is coded as 1234 CLEAR is coded as 56784 and SPARE is coded as 90847, how you encode the word SCULPTURE?
(A) 953601347
(B) 935601437
(C) 567903417
(D) None of these
Ans: A
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OBJECTIVE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) More than three
Ans : D
10. If A is coded 2, B is coded as 4 and C is coded 6,
what does the following number stand for?
12 10 10 8
(A) PEEP
(B) FEED
(C) DOOR
(D) DEAF
Ans: b
11. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 8429516 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
Ans : D
12. If Sister is coded as 535301, Uncle is coded as 84670 and Boy is coded as 129, how will you encode the word ‘SON’?
(A) 923
(B) 524
(C) 342
(D) 872
Ans: b
13. Jn a certain code language ‘over and above’ is written as ‘da pa ta’ and ‘old and beautiful’ is written as ‘sa na pa’. How is ‘over’ written in that code language?
(A)da
(B) ta
(C)na
(D)da or ta
Ans : D
14. If SLEEP is coded as XMKKB, SPEAR is coded as X8KOY and PULL is coded as BEMM then how would you encode the word PLEASURE?
(A) XYKBMOFK
(B) BMKOXEYK
(C) KOXFYKBM
(D) BKMOXEKY
Ans: B
Directions—(Q. 15-17) Following questions are based on the five three- digit numbers given below—
832 719 654 967 481
15.If the positions of the second and the third digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the sum of the first and the second digits of the third highest number?
(A) 16
(B) 10
(C) 9
(D) 15
Ans : A
16. If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the difference between the highest and the second highest number?
(A) 144
(B) 133
(C) 385
(D) 182
Ans : A
17. If the positions of the first and the third digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the sum of the second and third digits of the lowest number?
(A) 8
(B)11
(C) 15
(D)12
Directions—(Q. 18-24) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I ,II & III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
18. Statements:
All chairs are keys.
All keys are balloons.
Some balloons are mirrors.
Some mirrors are desks.
Conclusions:
I. Some desks are keys.
II. Some balloons are chairs.
III Some mirrors are balloons.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and III follow
Ans : D
19. Statements:
Some drums are posters.
All posters are windows.
Some windows are tablets.
All tablets are books.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are drums.
II. Some books are posters.
III. Some tablets are drums.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
Ans : B
20. Statements:
Some boxes are toys.
Some toys are nails.
Some nails are stores.
Some stores are shops.
Conclusions:
I. Some shops are toys.
II. Some nails are boxes.
III. No shop is toy.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only either I or III follows
(D) Only I follows
(E) None of these
Ans : C
21. Statements:
All doors are windows. No window is house.
Some houses are buildings.
All buildings are skies.
Conclusions:
I. Some skies are doors.
II. Some skies are houses.
III. Some buildings are doors.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and III follow
Ans : B
22. Statements:
All rivers are wails.
All walls are stones.
All stones are clothes.
All clothes are frees.
Conclusions:
I. Some trees are stones.
II Some clothes are rivers.
III. All walls are clothes.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) All follow
(B) None of these
Ans : D
23. Statements:
Some letters are glasses. Some glasses are plates.
All plates are buses. All buses are cars.
Conclusions:
I. Some cars are letters.
II. Some cars are glasses.
III. Some buses are glasses.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow
Ans : D
24. Statements:
All books are pens.
Some pens are ropes.
All ropes are discs.
Some discs are bricks.
Conclusions:
I. Some bricks are ropes.
II. Some discs are books.
III. Some bricks are pens.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(B) Only II and III follow
Ans : A
25. If the word BOY is coded as ACNPXZ, what does the coded word RTNPMO stand for?
(A) SON
(B) CUT
(C) PEN
(D) DOG
Ans: A
26. In a certain code CROWNED is written as PSDVEFO. How is
STREAMS written in that code?
(A) SUTDBNT
(B) TUSDTNB
(C) SUTFTNB
(D) None of these
Ans : D
27. If the word GASP is coded as KMRO and CROW is coded as AXYZ then how would
you encode the word SPARROW?
(A) TRCTTOY
(B) ROMXYZY
(C) ROMXXYZ
(D) VSDUURZ
Ans: c
28. If 8514 stands for HEAD, 3945 stands for RIDE and 057 stands for BEG then what
does stand for GRADE?
(A) 13754
(B) 41357
(C) 14735
(D) 73145
Ans: d
29. If INDUS is coded as 03865 and TENNIS is coded as 243305 then STUDENT will be coded as:
(A) 5268432
(B) 5642832
(C) 5628342
(D) 5648324
Ans: a
30. ‘DEAN’ is related to ‘NDAE’ and ‘ROAD’ is related to ‘DRAO’ in the same way as ‘SOME’ is related to
(A)ESMO
(B) BOMS
(C)EMOS
(D) MSEO
Ans : A
31. If COW is coded as 358, WORD is coded as
8571 and DRAW is code das 1708 then how
would you encode the word COWARD?
(A) 358017
(B) 358071
(C) 358077
(D) 507381
Ans: B
32. Among P, Q, T, A and B each having a different height, T is taller than P and B but shorter than A and Q. P is not the shortest. Who among them is the tallest?
(A) 15th
(B) 5th
(C) 30th
(D) None of these
Ans : D
33. Mohan correctly remembers that his father’s birthday is before twentieth January but after sixteenth January whereas his sister correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after eighteenth January but before twenty-third January. On which date in January is definitely their father’s birthday?
(A) Eighteenth
(B) Nineteenth
(C) Twentieth
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : B
34. If SON is coded as TUPQOP, what will be
the first and last letters of the coded word of
FATHER?
(A)GH
(B) G T
(C) D E
(D) P Q
Ans: b
Directions—(Q. 35—431) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
B 4 @ D A © 7 9 F % 2 R 5 H 6 E
* N $ 1 U W 3 P T 8 & v # Y I
35. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twenty- first from the left end of the above arrangement?
(A)R
(B)1
(C)5
(DNone of these
Ans : D
36. If all the numbers from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the fifteenth from the right end?
(A)W
(B)6
(C)*
(D)R
Ans : D
37. How many such consonants are there in the above e arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a vowel?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
Ans : C
38. In which of the following com binations the first element is in between the second and the third elements in the above arrange
ment? -
(A)2%F
(B) 9©7
(C)5H6
(D) *EN
Ans : D
39. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A)562
(B) WPU
(C)©9D
(D) &#T
(E)U3$
Ans : B
40. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : C
41. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : C
42. If LINE CLEAR is coded as OKQGFN HCU, what will be the first and last letters of the word for which the letters ZKUGS CUVXTH stand for?
(A) W E
(B) Z F
(C)YG
(D) Z H
Ans: A
43. In a certain code TRAIN is written as ‘39*7%’ and MEAL is written as ‘4$*@
How is ITEM written in that code?
(A)7$34
(B) 73$4
(C)79$4
(D) 73*4
Ans : B
44. If each consonant in the word TOLERANT is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel in the word is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and the new set of letters are arranged alphabetically, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the replacement?
(A) M
(B) P
(C) Q
(D) K
Ans : B
45. The positions of the first and the second digits in the number 85341279 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the third and the fourth digits are interchanged and so on till the positions of the seventh and the eighth digits. Which of the following will be the third to the right of 3 after the rearrange ent?
(A)9
(B)7
(C)8
(D)2
Ans : A
46. Among P, Q, R, T and W each having different weight, T is heavier than W and lighter than only P. Q is not the lightest. Who among them is definitely the lightest ?
(A) R
(B) W
(C) R or W
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : C
47. lf ‘R’ denotes ‘+’, ‘P’, denotes ‘x’,‘W’ denotes ‘+’ and
‘V’ denotes‘-‘then14W16R4V3P5=?
(A) 15
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 3
Ans : D
48. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A VY
(B) EB
(C) TQ
(D) IF
Ans : A
49. In a row of thirty children, M is sixth to the right of R who is twelfth from the left end. What is M’s position from the right end of the row ?
(A) Twelfth
(B) Thirteenth
(C) Fourteenth
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : B
50. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 169
(B) 441
(C) 361
(D) 529
Ans : B
Free online practice objective Questions for exams: Reasoning
1. If HARD is coded as 1357 and SOFT is
coded as 2468, what do the figures 21448 stand for?
(A) SHOP
(B) SCHOOL
(C) SHOOT
(D) SHOOL
Ans: C
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A)215
(B) 143
(C)247
(D) 91
Ans : A
3. If MNPQWXFG stand for the word LOVE, how would you encode the word HATE?
(A) FGBCVUFG
(B) FGBCUVCD
(C) IJBGVUFG
(D) IJBCUVFG
Ans: D
4. In a row of thirty five children, M is fifteenth from the right end and there are ten children between M and R. What is R’s position from the left end of the row?
(A) 15th
(B) 5th
(C) 30th
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : D
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A)Gold
(B) Nickel
(C) Platinum
(D) Diamond
Ans : D
6. If SEND-MONEY is coded as QCLB-KMLCW, how would you encode ‘MOST-
SECRET’?
Write the first and last letters only.
(A) R,K
(B) O,V
(C) K,R
(D) V,U
Ans: B
7. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RBAE using each letter only once in each word?
(A)Three
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) More than three
Ans : A
8. If TOUR is coded as 1234 CLEAR is coded as 56784 and SPARE is coded as 90847, how you encode the word SCULPTURE?
(A) 953601347
(B) 935601437
(C) 567903417
(D) None of these
Ans: A
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OBJECTIVE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) More than three
Ans : D
10. If A is coded 2, B is coded as 4 and C is coded 6,
what does the following number stand for?
12 10 10 8
(A) PEEP
(B) FEED
(C) DOOR
(D) DEAF
Ans: b
11. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 8429516 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
Ans : D
12. If Sister is coded as 535301, Uncle is coded as 84670 and Boy is coded as 129, how will you encode the word ‘SON’?
(A) 923
(B) 524
(C) 342
(D) 872
Ans: b
13. Jn a certain code language ‘over and above’ is written as ‘da pa ta’ and ‘old and beautiful’ is written as ‘sa na pa’. How is ‘over’ written in that code language?
(A)da
(B) ta
(C)na
(D)da or ta
Ans : D
14. If SLEEP is coded as XMKKB, SPEAR is coded as X8KOY and PULL is coded as BEMM then how would you encode the word PLEASURE?
(A) XYKBMOFK
(B) BMKOXEYK
(C) KOXFYKBM
(D) BKMOXEKY
Ans: B
Directions—(Q. 15-17) Following questions are based on the five three- digit numbers given below—
832 719 654 967 481
15.If the positions of the second and the third digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the sum of the first and the second digits of the third highest number?
(A) 16
(B) 10
(C) 9
(D) 15
Ans : A
16. If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the difference between the highest and the second highest number?
(A) 144
(B) 133
(C) 385
(D) 182
Ans : A
17. If the positions of the first and the third digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the sum of the second and third digits of the lowest number?
(A) 8
(B)11
(C) 15
(D)12
Directions—(Q. 18-24) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I ,II & III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
18. Statements:
All chairs are keys.
All keys are balloons.
Some balloons are mirrors.
Some mirrors are desks.
Conclusions:
I. Some desks are keys.
II. Some balloons are chairs.
III Some mirrors are balloons.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and III follow
Ans : D
19. Statements:
Some drums are posters.
All posters are windows.
Some windows are tablets.
All tablets are books.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are drums.
II. Some books are posters.
III. Some tablets are drums.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
Ans : B
20. Statements:
Some boxes are toys.
Some toys are nails.
Some nails are stores.
Some stores are shops.
Conclusions:
I. Some shops are toys.
II. Some nails are boxes.
III. No shop is toy.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only either I or III follows
(D) Only I follows
(E) None of these
Ans : C
21. Statements:
All doors are windows. No window is house.
Some houses are buildings.
All buildings are skies.
Conclusions:
I. Some skies are doors.
II. Some skies are houses.
III. Some buildings are doors.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and III follow
Ans : B
22. Statements:
All rivers are wails.
All walls are stones.
All stones are clothes.
All clothes are frees.
Conclusions:
I. Some trees are stones.
II Some clothes are rivers.
III. All walls are clothes.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) All follow
(B) None of these
Ans : D
23. Statements:
Some letters are glasses. Some glasses are plates.
All plates are buses. All buses are cars.
Conclusions:
I. Some cars are letters.
II. Some cars are glasses.
III. Some buses are glasses.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow
Ans : D
24. Statements:
All books are pens.
Some pens are ropes.
All ropes are discs.
Some discs are bricks.
Conclusions:
I. Some bricks are ropes.
II. Some discs are books.
III. Some bricks are pens.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(B) Only II and III follow
Ans : A
25. If the word BOY is coded as ACNPXZ, what does the coded word RTNPMO stand for?
(A) SON
(B) CUT
(C) PEN
(D) DOG
Ans: A
26. In a certain code CROWNED is written as PSDVEFO. How is
STREAMS written in that code?
(A) SUTDBNT
(B) TUSDTNB
(C) SUTFTNB
(D) None of these
Ans : D
27. If the word GASP is coded as KMRO and CROW is coded as AXYZ then how would
you encode the word SPARROW?
(A) TRCTTOY
(B) ROMXYZY
(C) ROMXXYZ
(D) VSDUURZ
Ans: c
28. If 8514 stands for HEAD, 3945 stands for RIDE and 057 stands for BEG then what
does stand for GRADE?
(A) 13754
(B) 41357
(C) 14735
(D) 73145
Ans: d
29. If INDUS is coded as 03865 and TENNIS is coded as 243305 then STUDENT will be coded as:
(A) 5268432
(B) 5642832
(C) 5628342
(D) 5648324
Ans: a
30. ‘DEAN’ is related to ‘NDAE’ and ‘ROAD’ is related to ‘DRAO’ in the same way as ‘SOME’ is related to
(A)ESMO
(B) BOMS
(C)EMOS
(D) MSEO
Ans : A
31. If COW is coded as 358, WORD is coded as
8571 and DRAW is code das 1708 then how
would you encode the word COWARD?
(A) 358017
(B) 358071
(C) 358077
(D) 507381
Ans: B
32. Among P, Q, T, A and B each having a different height, T is taller than P and B but shorter than A and Q. P is not the shortest. Who among them is the tallest?
(A) 15th
(B) 5th
(C) 30th
(D) None of these
Ans : D
33. Mohan correctly remembers that his father’s birthday is before twentieth January but after sixteenth January whereas his sister correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after eighteenth January but before twenty-third January. On which date in January is definitely their father’s birthday?
(A) Eighteenth
(B) Nineteenth
(C) Twentieth
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : B
34. If SON is coded as TUPQOP, what will be
the first and last letters of the coded word of
FATHER?
(A)GH
(B) G T
(C) D E
(D) P Q
Ans: b
Directions—(Q. 35—431) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
B 4 @ D A © 7 9 F % 2 R 5 H 6 E
* N $ 1 U W 3 P T 8 & v # Y I
35. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twenty- first from the left end of the above arrangement?
(A)R
(B)1
(C)5
(DNone of these
Ans : D
36. If all the numbers from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the fifteenth from the right end?
(A)W
(B)6
(C)*
(D)R
Ans : D
37. How many such consonants are there in the above e arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a vowel?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
Ans : C
38. In which of the following com binations the first element is in between the second and the third elements in the above arrange
ment? -
(A)2%F
(B) 9©7
(C)5H6
(D) *EN
Ans : D
39. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A)562
(B) WPU
(C)©9D
(D) &#T
(E)U3$
Ans : B
40. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : C
41. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol?
(A)None
(B) One
(C)Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : C
42. If LINE CLEAR is coded as OKQGFN HCU, what will be the first and last letters of the word for which the letters ZKUGS CUVXTH stand for?
(A) W E
(B) Z F
(C)YG
(D) Z H
Ans: A
43. In a certain code TRAIN is written as ‘39*7%’ and MEAL is written as ‘4$*@
How is ITEM written in that code?
(A)7$34
(B) 73$4
(C)79$4
(D) 73*4
Ans : B
44. If each consonant in the word TOLERANT is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel in the word is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and the new set of letters are arranged alphabetically, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the replacement?
(A) M
(B) P
(C) Q
(D) K
Ans : B
45. The positions of the first and the second digits in the number 85341279 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the third and the fourth digits are interchanged and so on till the positions of the seventh and the eighth digits. Which of the following will be the third to the right of 3 after the rearrange ent?
(A)9
(B)7
(C)8
(D)2
Ans : A
46. Among P, Q, R, T and W each having different weight, T is heavier than W and lighter than only P. Q is not the lightest. Who among them is definitely the lightest ?
(A) R
(B) W
(C) R or W
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : C
47. lf ‘R’ denotes ‘+’, ‘P’, denotes ‘x’,‘W’ denotes ‘+’ and
‘V’ denotes‘-‘then14W16R4V3P5=?
(A) 15
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 3
Ans : D
48. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A VY
(B) EB
(C) TQ
(D) IF
Ans : A
49. In a row of thirty children, M is sixth to the right of R who is twelfth from the left end. What is M’s position from the right end of the row ?
(A) Twelfth
(B) Thirteenth
(C) Fourteenth
(D) Data inadequate
Ans : B
50. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 169
(B) 441
(C) 361
(D) 529
Ans : B
Tuesday, June 7, 2011
Free online Reasoning For Bank Exams
Free online Reasoning For Bank Exams
Free Bank Po Online Practice Test :Reasoning
Bank Exam Solved Question Paper :Reasoning
1. If the given letters are represented by the numerals below them,
R T S U V A B C D E
8 5 2 0 6 7 9 1 3 4
Then, 408927 =?
(A) EURSBA
(B) ESRBSA
(C) EURBSA
(D) ESRBAS
Ans. (C)
2. If 45 x 3747; 57 x 6458 and 94 x 2746.
What is 84 x 36?
(a) 62
(b) 48
(c) 54
(d) 57
Ans. (b)
3. Which of the following operations when done in the same order in which they occur will not result in the same number with which one starts?
(a) + 2 x 7—4 ÷ 2 x 3 – 10 + 3 — 8
(b) —12 + 4 x 3 ÷ 6 x 5 —15 + 7 x 5 + 10
(c) + 3 x 4 – 8 ÷ 2 x 10 — 3 + 8 — 25
(d) —15 + 19 x 5 + 4 + 7x 2—28 + 4
Ans. (d)
4. The following information A, B, C, D, E, F and G are supplied about the players in a college. To answer the question. “How many play Hockey and Volleyball?” Which information is superfluous, that is not essentially required?
Information:
I. 40 players in a college play Hockey, Volleyball and Football.
II. 18 of them play two or more games.
III. 5 play all the three games.
IV. The number of players who Volleyball and Football is half of the number who play Hockey and Football.
V. Equal number of players plays only Football and Hockey.
VI. Four play Hockey and Football.
VII. Ten play only Hockey.
(a) I, V, VII
(b) II, VI, VII
(c) III, IV, VII
(d) I, III, V
Ans. (b)
Directions: Given below is a statement called “Assertion” (A) which is followed by another statement called “Reason” (R). Find out which of the following answer-choice is correct about them?
5. (a) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(b) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’
(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’
Assertion (A): Hindi should be the official language of India
Reason (R): Majority of people living in India are Hindus.
Ans. (c)
6. (a) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(b) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A’
(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’
Assertion (A): There is population explosion in India
Reason (R): India has failed to check the fertility rate
Ans. (d)
7. Indicate which of the following actions the most appropriate in the situation is given below:
Situation: Two-three students in the class of a sincere and devoted teacher frequently disturb him in the class while teaching. He is fed up with them.
Courses of Action:
(a) He tells the students of the class that he will not hold the classes if the disturbing students continue doing that
(b) He suspends the disturbing students from attending his class in the interest of the whole class
(c) He talks to the disturbing students to find
out what makes them behave that way and what could become about them
(d) He reports against them to the Principal with are commendation to take strong action against them
Ans. (c)
8. In the following argument indicate whether the conclusion drawn is
(a) Valid
(b) Invalid
(c) Doubtful
(d) Long-drawn one
Argument: A is taller than B, B is shorter than K, K is equal to S. So, S is taller than B.
Ans. (a)
9. A statement is followed by two inferences A’ and ‘B’. Indicate how the statement implies the inferences by selecting one of the following answer-choices;
(a) Only ‘A’ is implied
(b) Only ‘B’ is implied
(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are implied
(d) Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’ is implied
Statement: All ideals and values are not practical.
Inferences: (A) Some ideals and values are practical.
(B) Some ideals and values are not practical.
Ans. (c)
10. Given below are two statements I and II followed by two conclusions ‘A’ and ‘B’.
Considering the statements to be true even if in contradictors with known facts, indicate your answer by choosing one of the alternatives given below the conclusions how they can be inferred:
Statements: (I) To be alive one needs sufficient oxygen.
(II) Hilly stations have less oxygen in the air.
Conclusions: (A) One should take oxygen plant with him while visiting
the hilly station.
(B) No one should go to the hilly station.
(a) Only (A) can be inferred
(b) Only (B) can be inferred
(c) (A) and (B) both can be inferred
(d) Neither (A) nor (B) can be inferred
Ans. (a)
Directions: Given below are two statements ‘A’ and ‘B ‘followed by two inferences (I) and (II) drawn on the basis of principles of formal logic. Indicate which of the following answer choices is correct in each question.
11. Statements: (A) Only graduates are eligible for this post.
(B) Most rickshaw-pullers are graduates.
Inferences: (I) Some rickshaw-pullers are eligible for this post.
(II) All those eligible for this post are graduates.
(a) Only inference I is correct
(b) Only inference II is correct
(c) Both inferences I and II are correct
(d) Neither inference I nor inference II is correct
Ans. (c)
12. Statements: (A) All grapes are oranges.
(B) Some apples are not oranges.
Inferences: (I) All apples are grapes.
(II) Some apples are grapes.
(a) Only inference I is correct
(b) Only inference II is correct
(c) Both inferences I and II are correct
(d) Neither inference I nor inference II is correct
Ans. (d)
13. Statements: (A) All horses are donkeys.
(B) All donkeys are monkeys.
Inferences: (I) All horses are monkeys.
(II) All monkeys are horses.
(a) Only inference I is correct
(b) Only inference II is correct
(c) Both inference I and II are correct
(d) Neither inference I nor inference II is correct
Ans. (d)
Directions: Given below is one statement followed by two inferences (A) and (B) drawn on the basis of principles of formal logic. Indicate which of the following answer choices is correct in each question.
14. Statement: No man is infallible.
Inference: (A) All men are fallible.
(B) No infallible persona are men.
(a) Only inference (A) is correct
(b) Only inference (B) is correct
(c) Both inferences (A) and (B) are correct
(d) Neither inference (A) nor inference (B) is correct
Ans. (b)
15. Statement: Hardly a cattle lay eggs.
Inference: (A) A few Cattle lay eggs
(B) No cattle lay eggs.
Ans. (b)
16. Statement: All those committing crimes will he punished.
Inference: (A) No criminal will be excused at any cost.
(B) A few of those who commit crime are liable to punishment.
Ans. (a)
17. Whom would you like to appoint us a teacher in your school?
(a) A good scholarly person of submissive personality
(b) A disciple loving teacher of authoritarian attitude
(c) An enthusiastic person of moderate knowledge
(d) One who poses to be a good scholar in the class
Ans. (c)
18. Complete the series by choosing the best alternative given
Series: 6, 12, 20, 30, P
(a) 36
(b) 32
(d) 49
(c) 42
Ans. (c)
19. “A single shelf of a good European Library is worth the whole native literature of India and Arabia.” This statement is
(a) Factual
(b) Logical
(c) Opinion
(d) Reactionary
Ans. (D)
20. If the Statements I and II are true, which of the two conclusions, A and B follows?
Statements I: Some of those who pass this examination shall become teachers.
II. All teachers are well paid
Conclusion: A: All those who pass this examination shall be well paid
B: Some of those who pass this examination shall not be well paid
Choose from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of A and B
Ans. (A)
21. If ‘X loves Y’ is true, what can be inferred about ‘Y loves X’? It is
(a) True
(b) False
(c) May be true
(d) None of the above
Ans. (C)
20. ‘Honesty is the best policy’ because
(a) God rewards those who follow this maxim
(b) It leads to recognition in the society
(c) It facilitates cohesiveness in society
(d) It leads to material prosperity and spiritual awakening
Ans. (C)
21.The argument ‘I think therefore I am’ presupposes that
(a) All thinking beings exist
(b) All existing beings think
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans. (C)
22. If ‘No politician is dishonest’ is false, then the statement ‘Some politicians are dishonest’ shall be
(a) True
(b) False
(c) May be true
(d) None of the above
Ans. (B)
23. Which one of the following statements follows from the statement ‘Only goods trains stop at this station’?
(a) Some goods trains stop at this station
(b) All goods trains stop at this station
(c) Some goods trains do not stop at this station
(d) All trains that stop at this station are goods trains
Ans. (D)
24. Consider the following statements:
(1) The sunset is beautiful
(2) Mahatma Gandhi believed in non-violence
(3) Do not tell the world what you can do, just do it
(4) Those who own a car, are rich. Which one of the following is correct?
Fact Opinion Advice Assumption
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (A)
25. Education and Socio-economic development are
(a) related in a direct proportion
(b) related in an indirect proportion
(c) sometimes related and sometimes not related
(d) not related
Ans. (A)
26. Bats are mammals because bats suckle their young and
(a) All those who suckle their young are mammals
(b) All mammals suckle their young
(c) Some of those who suckle their young are mammals
(d) All the above
Ans. (B)
27. Which one of the following is the most forceful argument to support the statement that ‘Women must be given fifty per cent reservation in Parliament’?
(a) Women constitute fifty per cent of the population
(b) Women have so far been marginalized in public and political life
(c) This will facilitate the optimum use of the available human resources
(d) This will fulfill the constitutional requirement of not discriminating on the basis of
sex
Ans. (B)
28. Read the following statements:
A. Only students working for adult literacy are members of the National Service Scheme
(NSS).
B. Many adult literacy workers are members of NGO’s
C. Some NSS members have been called for a meeting
Which of the following conclusions is acceptable from the above?
(a) All adult literacy workers have been called for the meeting
(b) All NGO’s work for adult literacy
(c) All students work with NGO’s
(d) All those called for the meeting are students
Ans. (d)
29. Evaluate the following statements in terms of whether each is a fact, opinion, prejudice or advice.
A Women arc not suitable for Police Service
B. In democracy. no party should be in power for too long
C. Have proper rest, even during the Examination time
D. Obesity is a risk factor for coronary heart disease
Which of the following is the correct alternative?
Opinion Prejudice Fact Advice
(a) B C D A
(b) B A D C
(c) C A D B
(d) B D C A
Ans. (b)
30. Child labour can best he eradicated if the following is done for the concerned children
(a) Schools are opened and free lunch is provided
(b) Employment is provided to parents and tree education given to children
(c) Appropriate laws are enacted and enforced
(d) Employers of child labourers are punished and children are sent to school
Ans. (b)
31. Considering the proposition given below to he true, indicate which of the following conclusions can he drawn validly:
Proposition: No teacher is on time for the class
Conclusions:
(a) No persons who are on time for their classes arc teachers
(b) Some teachers arc not late for their classes
(c) Most teachers come to their classes on time
(d) Few teachers come on time for their classes
Ans. (d)
32. Given below are two Statements—I and II followed by two conclusions—A and B. Considering the statements to be true, indicate which of the following conclusions logically follow from the given statements by selecting one of the four response alternatives given below:
Statements: I. Some teachers are women.
II. No teacher is absent.
Conclusions: A. There is no male teachers.
B. All women teachers are present.
(a) Only A is true
(b) Only B is true
(c) Both A and B are true
(d) Neither A nor B is true
Ans. (d)
33. Find out which alternative statement can be inferred from the given information. Given Information: To listen effectively we have to guard against the tendency to skip over ideas which we may not like to hear”
(A) Skipping over the unwanted ideas increases the speed of listening.
(B) Some people tend to skip over unwanted ideas
(C) Selective skipping leads to effective listening
(D) One should not have likes and dislikes for information while listening to it.
Ans. (D)
34. Four inferences from the statement given below are indicated. Find out which inference is possible from the given statement:
“People in Armenia speak ‘Zymonic’”.
(A) Zymonic is spoken only in Armenia
(B) Some people in Georgia also speak Zymonic
(C) No one in Armenia speaks language other than Zymonic
(D) Some in Armenia speak languages other than Zymonic
Ans. (C)
35. Rage and Irritation are related in the same way as:
(A) Anger and Fear
(B) Joy and Delight
(C) Laughter and Smile
(D) Elation and Pride
Ans. (B)
36. To study the relationship of family size with income, a researcher classifies his population into different income slabs and then takes a random sample from each slab. Which technique of sampling does he adopt?
(A) Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Random Sampling
(C) Cluster Sampling
(D) Systematic Sampling
Ans. (B)
37. Read the statement given below:
“English is an invaluable asset in international communication.” Mark the correct one
(A) If the statement is a fact
(B) If the statement is an advice
(C) If the statement is an opinion
(D) If the statement is a prejudice
Ans. (C)
38. Four children are abused by a fifth one. All these four children react differently to the abuse and the ways in which they react are listed below. Which one of the reactions shows the maximum emotional maturity?
(A) Retorts with another abuse
(B) Runs away from the scene
(C) Keeps silent
(D) Gives a turn to the situation with humor
Ans. (C)
39. Read the statement given below:
“Supersonic jets have made the world too small”, Mark in the response sheet.
(A) If it is a fact
(B) If it is a value
(C) If it is an opinion which is not a value
(D) If it is a value judgment
Ans. (A)
40. For a proposition to be true it is necessary that it should have all of the following characteristics except
(A) It must be objective
(B) It must be in tune with accepted beliefs
(C) It must be consistent
(D) It must be testable
Ans. (D)
41. Read the passage given below. Then answer the question based on the passage:
I went to the market and bought a skirt, a bat, a table, a video and a cassette, the bat costs half the costs of the table, the cassette costs twice the bat, the video’s price is thrice the costs of the cassette and the skirt costs double the price of the cassette. Which article costs more than table, but less than video?
(A) Cassette
(B) Skirt
(C) Table
(D) Video
Ans. (B)
42. Find out which alternative statement can be inferred from the given information.
Given information:
“Listening is an activity, it begins with concentration”.
(A) Listening improves concentration
(B) Listening follows concentration
(C) Listening starts concentration
(D) Sometime it is possible to listen without concentration
Ans. (B)
43. The last day of a month is Saturday. Which of the following days could occur five times in the month?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Sunday
Ans. (C)
44.P is the grandchild of Q, S is the wife of R. Which of the following informations would help to infer that S is the aunt of P?
(A) Q is the father of R
(B) R is the son-in-law of Q
(C) R is the brother of P’s father
(D) P is the daughter of Q’s daughter
Ans. (C)
45. The words are arranged in some order. Which sequence follows a rule?
(A) Blue, red, violet, green
(B) Green, violet, red, blue
(C) Red, blue, green, violet
(D) Violet, red, blue, green
Ans. (B)
46. Many words can be produced from the given word. They are grouped into four clusters. One of the clusters contains a word that cannot be produced from the given word. Which is that cluster?
Given word: FRAGRANCE
Clusters:
(A) GRACE, FARE, RAN
(B) FAR, RAGE, RARE
(C) FRANCE, GLANCE, CAR
(D) ARE, CAN, RAG
Ans. (C)
47. If A means “not equal to” (), B means “greater than” (>), C means “not less then” D means “is equal to” (=),E means “is not greater than and F means “is less than” (<), then according to the given basic statement (4x F5y) and (5yE 3s), which one of the following conclusions is correct?
(a) 4x B 3s
(b) 4x D 3s
(c) 4x A 3s
(d) 4x C 3s
Ans. (c)
48. If 2 *+ ** = 92, then which are of the following is the value of the star symbol (*)?
(a) 8—7
(b) 9—6
(c) 7—5
(d) 10—4
Ans. (d)
49. Fill in the missing number in the arrangement. They are arranged on the basis of a principle:
5 7 9
9 6 4
36 36 ?
(a) 40
(b) 32
(c) 36
(d) 42
Ans. (b)
50. A clock always has
(a) Battery
(b) Numbers
(c) Alarm
(d) Needles
(e) Frame
Ans. (d)
Free Bank Po Online Practice Test :Reasoning
Bank Exam Solved Question Paper :Reasoning
1. If the given letters are represented by the numerals below them,
R T S U V A B C D E
8 5 2 0 6 7 9 1 3 4
Then, 408927 =?
(A) EURSBA
(B) ESRBSA
(C) EURBSA
(D) ESRBAS
Ans. (C)
2. If 45 x 3747; 57 x 6458 and 94 x 2746.
What is 84 x 36?
(a) 62
(b) 48
(c) 54
(d) 57
Ans. (b)
3. Which of the following operations when done in the same order in which they occur will not result in the same number with which one starts?
(a) + 2 x 7—4 ÷ 2 x 3 – 10 + 3 — 8
(b) —12 + 4 x 3 ÷ 6 x 5 —15 + 7 x 5 + 10
(c) + 3 x 4 – 8 ÷ 2 x 10 — 3 + 8 — 25
(d) —15 + 19 x 5 + 4 + 7x 2—28 + 4
Ans. (d)
4. The following information A, B, C, D, E, F and G are supplied about the players in a college. To answer the question. “How many play Hockey and Volleyball?” Which information is superfluous, that is not essentially required?
Information:
I. 40 players in a college play Hockey, Volleyball and Football.
II. 18 of them play two or more games.
III. 5 play all the three games.
IV. The number of players who Volleyball and Football is half of the number who play Hockey and Football.
V. Equal number of players plays only Football and Hockey.
VI. Four play Hockey and Football.
VII. Ten play only Hockey.
(a) I, V, VII
(b) II, VI, VII
(c) III, IV, VII
(d) I, III, V
Ans. (b)
Directions: Given below is a statement called “Assertion” (A) which is followed by another statement called “Reason” (R). Find out which of the following answer-choice is correct about them?
5. (a) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(b) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’
(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’
Assertion (A): Hindi should be the official language of India
Reason (R): Majority of people living in India are Hindus.
Ans. (c)
6. (a) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(b) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of A’
(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’
Assertion (A): There is population explosion in India
Reason (R): India has failed to check the fertility rate
Ans. (d)
7. Indicate which of the following actions the most appropriate in the situation is given below:
Situation: Two-three students in the class of a sincere and devoted teacher frequently disturb him in the class while teaching. He is fed up with them.
Courses of Action:
(a) He tells the students of the class that he will not hold the classes if the disturbing students continue doing that
(b) He suspends the disturbing students from attending his class in the interest of the whole class
(c) He talks to the disturbing students to find
out what makes them behave that way and what could become about them
(d) He reports against them to the Principal with are commendation to take strong action against them
Ans. (c)
8. In the following argument indicate whether the conclusion drawn is
(a) Valid
(b) Invalid
(c) Doubtful
(d) Long-drawn one
Argument: A is taller than B, B is shorter than K, K is equal to S. So, S is taller than B.
Ans. (a)
9. A statement is followed by two inferences A’ and ‘B’. Indicate how the statement implies the inferences by selecting one of the following answer-choices;
(a) Only ‘A’ is implied
(b) Only ‘B’ is implied
(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are implied
(d) Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’ is implied
Statement: All ideals and values are not practical.
Inferences: (A) Some ideals and values are practical.
(B) Some ideals and values are not practical.
Ans. (c)
10. Given below are two statements I and II followed by two conclusions ‘A’ and ‘B’.
Considering the statements to be true even if in contradictors with known facts, indicate your answer by choosing one of the alternatives given below the conclusions how they can be inferred:
Statements: (I) To be alive one needs sufficient oxygen.
(II) Hilly stations have less oxygen in the air.
Conclusions: (A) One should take oxygen plant with him while visiting
the hilly station.
(B) No one should go to the hilly station.
(a) Only (A) can be inferred
(b) Only (B) can be inferred
(c) (A) and (B) both can be inferred
(d) Neither (A) nor (B) can be inferred
Ans. (a)
Directions: Given below are two statements ‘A’ and ‘B ‘followed by two inferences (I) and (II) drawn on the basis of principles of formal logic. Indicate which of the following answer choices is correct in each question.
11. Statements: (A) Only graduates are eligible for this post.
(B) Most rickshaw-pullers are graduates.
Inferences: (I) Some rickshaw-pullers are eligible for this post.
(II) All those eligible for this post are graduates.
(a) Only inference I is correct
(b) Only inference II is correct
(c) Both inferences I and II are correct
(d) Neither inference I nor inference II is correct
Ans. (c)
12. Statements: (A) All grapes are oranges.
(B) Some apples are not oranges.
Inferences: (I) All apples are grapes.
(II) Some apples are grapes.
(a) Only inference I is correct
(b) Only inference II is correct
(c) Both inferences I and II are correct
(d) Neither inference I nor inference II is correct
Ans. (d)
13. Statements: (A) All horses are donkeys.
(B) All donkeys are monkeys.
Inferences: (I) All horses are monkeys.
(II) All monkeys are horses.
(a) Only inference I is correct
(b) Only inference II is correct
(c) Both inference I and II are correct
(d) Neither inference I nor inference II is correct
Ans. (d)
Directions: Given below is one statement followed by two inferences (A) and (B) drawn on the basis of principles of formal logic. Indicate which of the following answer choices is correct in each question.
14. Statement: No man is infallible.
Inference: (A) All men are fallible.
(B) No infallible persona are men.
(a) Only inference (A) is correct
(b) Only inference (B) is correct
(c) Both inferences (A) and (B) are correct
(d) Neither inference (A) nor inference (B) is correct
Ans. (b)
15. Statement: Hardly a cattle lay eggs.
Inference: (A) A few Cattle lay eggs
(B) No cattle lay eggs.
Ans. (b)
16. Statement: All those committing crimes will he punished.
Inference: (A) No criminal will be excused at any cost.
(B) A few of those who commit crime are liable to punishment.
Ans. (a)
17. Whom would you like to appoint us a teacher in your school?
(a) A good scholarly person of submissive personality
(b) A disciple loving teacher of authoritarian attitude
(c) An enthusiastic person of moderate knowledge
(d) One who poses to be a good scholar in the class
Ans. (c)
18. Complete the series by choosing the best alternative given
Series: 6, 12, 20, 30, P
(a) 36
(b) 32
(d) 49
(c) 42
Ans. (c)
19. “A single shelf of a good European Library is worth the whole native literature of India and Arabia.” This statement is
(a) Factual
(b) Logical
(c) Opinion
(d) Reactionary
Ans. (D)
20. If the Statements I and II are true, which of the two conclusions, A and B follows?
Statements I: Some of those who pass this examination shall become teachers.
II. All teachers are well paid
Conclusion: A: All those who pass this examination shall be well paid
B: Some of those who pass this examination shall not be well paid
Choose from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of A and B
Ans. (A)
21. If ‘X loves Y’ is true, what can be inferred about ‘Y loves X’? It is
(a) True
(b) False
(c) May be true
(d) None of the above
Ans. (C)
20. ‘Honesty is the best policy’ because
(a) God rewards those who follow this maxim
(b) It leads to recognition in the society
(c) It facilitates cohesiveness in society
(d) It leads to material prosperity and spiritual awakening
Ans. (C)
21.The argument ‘I think therefore I am’ presupposes that
(a) All thinking beings exist
(b) All existing beings think
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans. (C)
22. If ‘No politician is dishonest’ is false, then the statement ‘Some politicians are dishonest’ shall be
(a) True
(b) False
(c) May be true
(d) None of the above
Ans. (B)
23. Which one of the following statements follows from the statement ‘Only goods trains stop at this station’?
(a) Some goods trains stop at this station
(b) All goods trains stop at this station
(c) Some goods trains do not stop at this station
(d) All trains that stop at this station are goods trains
Ans. (D)
24. Consider the following statements:
(1) The sunset is beautiful
(2) Mahatma Gandhi believed in non-violence
(3) Do not tell the world what you can do, just do it
(4) Those who own a car, are rich. Which one of the following is correct?
Fact Opinion Advice Assumption
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (A)
25. Education and Socio-economic development are
(a) related in a direct proportion
(b) related in an indirect proportion
(c) sometimes related and sometimes not related
(d) not related
Ans. (A)
26. Bats are mammals because bats suckle their young and
(a) All those who suckle their young are mammals
(b) All mammals suckle their young
(c) Some of those who suckle their young are mammals
(d) All the above
Ans. (B)
27. Which one of the following is the most forceful argument to support the statement that ‘Women must be given fifty per cent reservation in Parliament’?
(a) Women constitute fifty per cent of the population
(b) Women have so far been marginalized in public and political life
(c) This will facilitate the optimum use of the available human resources
(d) This will fulfill the constitutional requirement of not discriminating on the basis of
sex
Ans. (B)
28. Read the following statements:
A. Only students working for adult literacy are members of the National Service Scheme
(NSS).
B. Many adult literacy workers are members of NGO’s
C. Some NSS members have been called for a meeting
Which of the following conclusions is acceptable from the above?
(a) All adult literacy workers have been called for the meeting
(b) All NGO’s work for adult literacy
(c) All students work with NGO’s
(d) All those called for the meeting are students
Ans. (d)
29. Evaluate the following statements in terms of whether each is a fact, opinion, prejudice or advice.
A Women arc not suitable for Police Service
B. In democracy. no party should be in power for too long
C. Have proper rest, even during the Examination time
D. Obesity is a risk factor for coronary heart disease
Which of the following is the correct alternative?
Opinion Prejudice Fact Advice
(a) B C D A
(b) B A D C
(c) C A D B
(d) B D C A
Ans. (b)
30. Child labour can best he eradicated if the following is done for the concerned children
(a) Schools are opened and free lunch is provided
(b) Employment is provided to parents and tree education given to children
(c) Appropriate laws are enacted and enforced
(d) Employers of child labourers are punished and children are sent to school
Ans. (b)
31. Considering the proposition given below to he true, indicate which of the following conclusions can he drawn validly:
Proposition: No teacher is on time for the class
Conclusions:
(a) No persons who are on time for their classes arc teachers
(b) Some teachers arc not late for their classes
(c) Most teachers come to their classes on time
(d) Few teachers come on time for their classes
Ans. (d)
32. Given below are two Statements—I and II followed by two conclusions—A and B. Considering the statements to be true, indicate which of the following conclusions logically follow from the given statements by selecting one of the four response alternatives given below:
Statements: I. Some teachers are women.
II. No teacher is absent.
Conclusions: A. There is no male teachers.
B. All women teachers are present.
(a) Only A is true
(b) Only B is true
(c) Both A and B are true
(d) Neither A nor B is true
Ans. (d)
33. Find out which alternative statement can be inferred from the given information. Given Information: To listen effectively we have to guard against the tendency to skip over ideas which we may not like to hear”
(A) Skipping over the unwanted ideas increases the speed of listening.
(B) Some people tend to skip over unwanted ideas
(C) Selective skipping leads to effective listening
(D) One should not have likes and dislikes for information while listening to it.
Ans. (D)
34. Four inferences from the statement given below are indicated. Find out which inference is possible from the given statement:
“People in Armenia speak ‘Zymonic’”.
(A) Zymonic is spoken only in Armenia
(B) Some people in Georgia also speak Zymonic
(C) No one in Armenia speaks language other than Zymonic
(D) Some in Armenia speak languages other than Zymonic
Ans. (C)
35. Rage and Irritation are related in the same way as:
(A) Anger and Fear
(B) Joy and Delight
(C) Laughter and Smile
(D) Elation and Pride
Ans. (B)
36. To study the relationship of family size with income, a researcher classifies his population into different income slabs and then takes a random sample from each slab. Which technique of sampling does he adopt?
(A) Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Random Sampling
(C) Cluster Sampling
(D) Systematic Sampling
Ans. (B)
37. Read the statement given below:
“English is an invaluable asset in international communication.” Mark the correct one
(A) If the statement is a fact
(B) If the statement is an advice
(C) If the statement is an opinion
(D) If the statement is a prejudice
Ans. (C)
38. Four children are abused by a fifth one. All these four children react differently to the abuse and the ways in which they react are listed below. Which one of the reactions shows the maximum emotional maturity?
(A) Retorts with another abuse
(B) Runs away from the scene
(C) Keeps silent
(D) Gives a turn to the situation with humor
Ans. (C)
39. Read the statement given below:
“Supersonic jets have made the world too small”, Mark in the response sheet.
(A) If it is a fact
(B) If it is a value
(C) If it is an opinion which is not a value
(D) If it is a value judgment
Ans. (A)
40. For a proposition to be true it is necessary that it should have all of the following characteristics except
(A) It must be objective
(B) It must be in tune with accepted beliefs
(C) It must be consistent
(D) It must be testable
Ans. (D)
41. Read the passage given below. Then answer the question based on the passage:
I went to the market and bought a skirt, a bat, a table, a video and a cassette, the bat costs half the costs of the table, the cassette costs twice the bat, the video’s price is thrice the costs of the cassette and the skirt costs double the price of the cassette. Which article costs more than table, but less than video?
(A) Cassette
(B) Skirt
(C) Table
(D) Video
Ans. (B)
42. Find out which alternative statement can be inferred from the given information.
Given information:
“Listening is an activity, it begins with concentration”.
(A) Listening improves concentration
(B) Listening follows concentration
(C) Listening starts concentration
(D) Sometime it is possible to listen without concentration
Ans. (B)
43. The last day of a month is Saturday. Which of the following days could occur five times in the month?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Sunday
Ans. (C)
44.P is the grandchild of Q, S is the wife of R. Which of the following informations would help to infer that S is the aunt of P?
(A) Q is the father of R
(B) R is the son-in-law of Q
(C) R is the brother of P’s father
(D) P is the daughter of Q’s daughter
Ans. (C)
45. The words are arranged in some order. Which sequence follows a rule?
(A) Blue, red, violet, green
(B) Green, violet, red, blue
(C) Red, blue, green, violet
(D) Violet, red, blue, green
Ans. (B)
46. Many words can be produced from the given word. They are grouped into four clusters. One of the clusters contains a word that cannot be produced from the given word. Which is that cluster?
Given word: FRAGRANCE
Clusters:
(A) GRACE, FARE, RAN
(B) FAR, RAGE, RARE
(C) FRANCE, GLANCE, CAR
(D) ARE, CAN, RAG
Ans. (C)
47. If A means “not equal to” (), B means “greater than” (>), C means “not less then” D means “is equal to” (=),E means “is not greater than and F means “is less than” (<), then according to the given basic statement (4x F5y) and (5yE 3s), which one of the following conclusions is correct?
(a) 4x B 3s
(b) 4x D 3s
(c) 4x A 3s
(d) 4x C 3s
Ans. (c)
48. If 2 *+ ** = 92, then which are of the following is the value of the star symbol (*)?
(a) 8—7
(b) 9—6
(c) 7—5
(d) 10—4
Ans. (d)
49. Fill in the missing number in the arrangement. They are arranged on the basis of a principle:
5 7 9
9 6 4
36 36 ?
(a) 40
(b) 32
(c) 36
(d) 42
Ans. (b)
50. A clock always has
(a) Battery
(b) Numbers
(c) Alarm
(d) Needles
(e) Frame
Ans. (d)
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